Showing posts with label INDIAN POLITY. Show all posts

Tuesday, May 1, 2012

The Significance of Cooperatives for Social Justice

Throughout the world today, societies are being torn apart due to the fact that various social groups and classes are not getting their due respect from other forces in society. Many societies are lacking social justice which could be seen as equal opportunity treatment of all persons in society. Various institutions have the responsibility to ensure this happens. Yet social justice is absent in many instances.

Cooperatives are based on principles and values that speak directly to the issue of social justice. Most traditional cooperatives follow the seven principles of cooperative identity, promoted by the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA), an Apex organization for cooperatives around the world. These principles call for the practice of democracy, equality, equity and solidarity. Cooperatives also embrace the ethical values of honesty, openness, social responsibility and caring for others.

With these principles and values at the core of cooperative operations, the poor, excluded and marginalized sectors of society are usually served well by cooperatives. The financial sector is one area where this has shown well. Financial cooperatives are some of the largest providers of micro-finance services to the poor. It is estimated that globally, financial cooperatives reach 78 million clients living below a poverty line of $2 per day. Financial cooperatives thus play a central role in the achievement of an inclusive financial sector that encompasses the poor.

Through their commitment to servicing the poor and under-served, financial cooperatives are helping to lessen the burden of poverty. Financial cooperatives, by providing savings products, help to reduce members’ vulnerabilities to shocks such as medical emergencies.

Cooperatives have also been instrumental in promoting inclusive development in rural areas, helping to both strengthen and diversify rural economies. Financial cooperatives provide access to credit for members who might not typically have access to the larger savings and commercial banks. This is significant in markets where financial providers are absent owing to poor revenue prospects, high risks, or high transaction costs. This access to financial services often supports the formation of small and micro businesses.

Cooperatives have also been able to strengthen agricultural production and improve access of poor farmers, especially through engaging in fair trade arrangements. Small farmers who struggle to create and sustain businesses of their own are able to increase farm revenues, lower marketing and information-gathering costs, as well as enter into high-value supply chains that they would not be able to do on their own.

While the need for more research cannot be denied, that which exists supports the idea that, if given the right supportive environment, cooperatives could help in profound ways to achieve social justice, where it is lacking. Empowering cooperatives to leverage their capacity to contribute to social justice requires a sound policy and legislative framework.

The International Year of Cooperatives 2012, declared by the United Nations General Assembly, is one means to raising awareness. By raising awareness of cooperatives – what they are and what they do – the IYC will empower cooperatives to promote their social justice values and encourage governments to create supportive policy and legislative frameworks, where needed.

Even with this support, the challenge of effective implementation of the cooperative principles and values cannot be ignored. The sound governance of cooperatives depends upon a well-informed and active membership base, dedicated to cooperative values and principles. To sustain the drive of cooperatives for social justice, a strong membership base, bound by the democratic one-member-one-vote principle, is essential to addressing weak or unethical management, capture by local politicians, or other conflicts of interests which could divert cooperatives from addressing social justice issues.

SOME IMPORTANT NOTES ON DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

Firstly, some of the directive principles of State policy, which are related to distributive justice, moulded the property relations by influencing the interrelationship doctrine, both directly and indirectly.
Secondly, the interrelationship doctrine is very much influenced by Article 39A of the Constitution which provides for equal justice and free legal aid in the justice delivery system.
Thirdly, the directive principles of State shall strive to secure its citizens right to an adequate means of livelihood and make the effective provision for securing right to work.
Fourthly, the directive principle that ';tender age of children are not abused';, and that ';children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in a conditions of freedom and dignity that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation against moral and material abandonment'; [Article 39(f) have provided the spirit of law to the Apex Court.
Fifthly, the directive principle of ';Equal pay for equal work'; and ';participation of workers in management'; were received through right to equality under Article 14 in Part III, in various cases, such as Randhir Singh (AIR 1982 SC 469)and National Textile Workers Union case (AIR 1983 SC 75).
Sixthly, the directive principles relating to uniform civil code has the potentiality of using the interrelationship doctrine for its implementation.
Seventhly, the promotion of educational and economic interest of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe and other weaker section of the society, contemplated under Article 46 provides a guidance for affirmative actions under Article 15(4) and 16(4) and a pointer for resolving tension between formal and substantive equality by laying emphasis on infusing of strength and ability to compete, through eduction and training to weaker sectors (M.R. Balaji vs. State of Mysore – AIR 1963 SC 649).
Finally, the directive principle that the State shall endeavour to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations has a great potentiality of absorbing the international principles relating to guarantee as under of human rights, and thus influence the interrelationship doctrine.

The convictions are reflected:
(i) The impact of directive principles upon the interrelationship doctrine or vice-versa is not only theoretical but also practical and rewarding. Interrelationship doctrine has given impetus to, and got animated by the process of reading the directive principles into Part III of the Constitution.
(ii) It is true to say that the interrelationship doctrine has its roots in the very text of the constitution. This can be seen when the objects set in the Preamble, followed by Juxtaposing of right to equality with classification, the flexibility imbibed in fundamental rights, the spirit of law (operation of whole Part-III of the Constitution visa-vis the impugned law) rejection of compartmentalised treatment of fundamental rights and finally, the distinction between citizens and non-citizens with regard to availability of fundamental rights and the possibility of invoking a fundamental right to avail a suspended fundamental right during emergency are taken into account with a conscious approach of unity in diversity.
Former Chief Justice of India Shri M.N. Venkatachelaiah, said that professor Bhat examines the relationship of fundamental rights inter se and the jurisprudential and constitutional foundations of that interrelationship. The interrelationship is also a necessary implication of constitutionalism and Rule of Law. It was viewed that professor Bhat, in his elegant analysis, indicates the ';parallel streams'; and ‘cross-currents’ of fundamental rights and how these rights inform and enrich each other. This discourse has its familiar ring in the International Human Rights Regime, and the principles of their universality, indivibility and interdependence Fundamental Rights and DPSP.
When the tussle for primacy between fundamental rights and DPSP came up before the Supreme Court in the case of State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) SCR 525 first, the court said, “The directive principles have to conform to and run subsidiary to the chapter on fundamental rights.” Later, in the Fundamental Rights Case (referred to above), the majority opinions reflected the view that what is fundamental in the governance of the country cannot be less significant than what is significant in the life of the individual. Another judge constituting the majority in that case said: “In building up a just social order it is sometimes imperative that the fundamental rights should be subordinated to directive principles.” This view, that the fundamental rights and DPSP are complementary, “neither part being superior to the other,” has held the field since ( V.R.Krishna Iyer,J. in State of Kerala v. N. M.. Thomas (1976) 2 SCC 310 at para. 134, p. 367).
The DPSP have, through important constitutional amendments, become the benchmark to insulate legislation enacted to achieve social objectives, as enumerated in some of the DPSP, from attacks of invalidation by courts. This way, legislation for achieving agrarian reforms, and specifically for achieving the objectives of articles 39(b) and (c) of the Constitution, has been immunized from challenge as to its violation of the right to equality (art. 14) and freedoms of speech, expression, etc. (art. 19). However, even here the court has retained its power of judicial review to examine if, in fact, the legislation is intended to achieve the objective of articles 39(b) and (c), and where the legislation is an amendment to the Constitution, whether it violates the basic structure of the constitution. Likewise, courts have used DPSP to uphold the constitutional validity of statutes that apparently impose restrictions on the fundamental rights under article 19 (freedoms of speech, expression, association, residence, travel and to carry on a business, trade or profession), as long as they are stated to achieve the objective of the DPSP.
The DPSP are seen as aids to interpret the Constitution, and more specifically to provide the basis, scope and extent of the content of a fundamental right.
To quote again from the Fundamental Rights case:
Fundamental rights have themselves no fixed content; most of them are empty vessels into which each generation must pour its content in the light of its experience. Restrictions, abridgement, curtailment and even abrogation of these rights in circumstances not visualised by the constitution makers might become necessary; their claim to supremacy or priority is liable to be overborne at particular stages in the history ofthe nation by the moral claims embodied in Part IV ( Chandra Bhavan v. State of Mysore (1970) 2 SCR, note 1, SCC para. 1714, p. 881).
The Maneka Gandhi Case and Thereafter Simultaneously, the judiciary took upon itself the task of infusing into the constitutional provisions the spirit of social justice. This it did in a series of cases of which Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) 1 SCC 248 was a landmark. The case involved the refusal by the government to grant a passport to the petitioner, which thus restrained her liberty to travel. In answering the question whether this denial could be sustained without a predecisional hearing, the court proceeded to explain the scope and content of the right to life and liberty. In a departure from the earlier view, A.K.Gopalan v. State of Madras 1950 SCR 88 the court asserted the doctrine of substantive due process as integral to the chapter on fundamental rights and emanating from a collective understanding of the scheme underlying articles 14 (the right to equality), 19 (the freedoms) and 21 (the right to life). The power the court has to strike down legislation was thus broadened to include critical examination of the substantive due process element in statutes. Once the court took a broader view of the scope and content of the fundamental right to life and liberty, there was no looking back. Article 21 was interpreted to include a bundle of other incidental and integral rights, many of them in the nature of ESC rights. In Francis Coralie v. union territory of India(AIR 1978 SC 597) the court declared:
“The right to life includes the right to live with human dignity and all that goes with it, namely, the bare necessaries of life such as adequate nutrition, clothing and shelter and facilities for reading, writing and expressing oneself in diverse forms, freely moving about and mixing and comingling with fellow human beings. The magnitude and components of this right would depend upon the extent of economic development of the country, but it must, in any view of the matter, include the bare necessities of life and also the right to carry on such functions and activities as constitute the bare minimum expression of the human self.”
The combined effect of the expanded interpretation of the right to life and the use of PIL as a tool led the court into areas where there was a crying need for social justice. These were areas where there was a direct interaction between law and poverty, as in the case of bonded labor and child labor, and crime and poverty, as in the case of under trials in jails. In reading several of these concomitant rights of dignity, living conditions, health into the ambit of the right to life, the court overcame the difficulty of justiciability of these as economic and social rights, which were hitherto, in their manifestation as DPSP, considered nonenforceable. A brief look at how some of these ESC rights were dealt with by the court in four specific contexts will help understand the development of the law in this area.

SUPREME COURT IN 1973 IN KESAVANANDA BHARATI VS. STATE OF KERALA

As to what are these basic features, the debate still continues. The Supreme Court has also held that the scope of certain fundamental rights could be adjudged by reading into them or reading them not only in the light of the Directive Principles of State Policy but also international covenants or conventions which were in harmony with the Fundamental Rights.
The Fundamental Rights — embodied in Part III of the constitution — guarantee civil liberties such that all Indians can lead their lives in peace as citizens of India. The six fundamental rights are right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and right to constitutional remedies. These include individual rights common to most liberal democracies, incorporated in the fundamental law of the land and are enforceable in a court of law. Violations of these rights result in punishments as prescribed in the Indian Penal Code, subject to discretion of the judiciary. These rights are neither absolute nor immune from constitutional amendments. They have been aimed at overturning the inequalities of pre-independence social practices. Specifically, they resulted in abolishment of untouchability and prohibit discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. They forbid human trafficking and unfree labour. They protect cultural and educational rights of ethnic and religious minorities by allowing them to preserve their languages and administer their own educational institutions.

All people, irrespective of race, religion, caste or sex, have the right to approach the High Courts or the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. It is not necessary that the aggrieved party has to be the one to do so. In public interest, anyone can initiate litigation in the court on their behalf. This is known as "Public interest litigation". High Court and Supreme Court judges can also act on their own on the basis of media reports. Fundamental Rights primarily protect individuals from any arbitrary State actions, but some rights are enforceable against private individuals too. For instance, the constitution abolishes untouchability and prohibits begar. These provisions act as a check both on State action and actions of private individuals. Fundamental Rights are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions as necessary for the protection of national interest.
In the Kesavananda Bharati vs. state of Kerala case, the Supreme Court ruled that all provisions of the constitution, including Fundamental Rights can be amended. However, the Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the constitution like secularism, democracy, federalism, separation of powers. Often called the "Basic structure doctrine", this decision is widely regarded as an important part of Indian history.
In the 1978 Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court extended the doctrine's importance as superior to any parliamentary legislation. According to the verdict, no act of parliament can be considered a law if it violated the basic structure of the constitution. This landmark guarantee of Fundamental Rights was regarded as a unique example of judicial independence in preserving the sanctity of Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental Rights can only be altered by a constitutional amendment, hence their inclusion is a check not only on the executive branch, but also on the Parliament and state legislatures. The imposition of a state of emergency may lead to a temporary suspension of the rights conferred by Article 19 (including freedoms of speech, assembly and movement, etc.) to preserve national security and public order. The President can, by order, suspend the right to constitutional remedies as well.

Theory of basic structure: a limitation on amending power

The validity of constitution (24th amendment) Act 1971, was challenged in keshvananda bharti vs. state of kerala (AIR 1973 SC 1461). This 13 judge bench decided that 24th amendment is valid and the power to amend the constitution is found in Art. 368 itself. Further the court recognized that there is a distinction between ordinary law and constitutional law. This could impliedly mean that Art.368 confers power to even abridge a fundamental right and to this extent, Golaknath case was overruled. But 7 of judges held that power of amendment under article 368 is subject to certain implied and inherent limitations and that in the exercise of amending the basic structure or frame-work of the constitution. So the majority was of the opinion that the amending power under article 368 is subject to the qualification that this amending power cannot be exercised to alter the basic structure of the framework of the constitution. Such as (1) Supremacy of the constitution. (2) Republican and democratic form of govt. (3) Secular character of constitution. (4) Separation of power. (5) Federal character of constitution

In Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC 2299), the sc referred to keshava nanda bharti case and accepted the doctrine of basic structure of frame work of constitution. The validity of thirty ninth amendment (1975) of the constitution was in question. This amendment excluded judicial review of election and law relating to elections. This amendment was held to be invalid by the SC.as it altered a basic feature of the constitution; the judicial review in election disputes.

To neutralise the affect of doctrine of the basic structure, the Govt. enacted the constitution (42ND Amendment) Act.1979 and added clauses (4) and (5) to art. 368 which provided for exclusion of judicial review of amendments of the constitution made before or after the 42nd Amendment. It also declared that there shall be no limitation on the amending power of the parliament under article 368. The court held that clause (4) and (5) of art. 368 are unconstitutional as it affects the basic structure of the constitution i.e. judicial review. However, there was difference of opinion on validity of amended article 31-C which gave primacy to all Directive principles over the fundamental rights. Although the minority declared void the amended article 31-C, justice Bhagwati (minority judgment) upheld it by giving a restrictive interpretation in terms of doctrine of basic structure.

In Minerva mills vs. union of India (air 1980 sc 1789) The SC by 4 to 1 majority struck down clauses (4) and (5) of article 368 inserted by the 42nd amendment as these clauses destroyed the essential features of the basic structure of the constitution. And held that the following are basic structure of the constitution:

limited power of parliament to amend the constitution;
harmony and balance between fundamental rights and directive principles;
fundamental rights in certain cases;
power of judicial review in certain cases;

Independence of judiciary is part of the basic structure.
In Woman Rao vs. Union of India (AIR 1881 SC 271) The supreme court held that all amendment to the constitution which were made before April 24th, 1973(i.e.. the date on which the judgment of Keshvananda Bharti was delivered )including those by which the ninth schedule to the constitution was amended from time to time were valid and constitutional.
In S.P. Sampat kumar vs. union of India (AIR 1987 SC 271), the Supreme Court upheld the validity of art. 323-A and the Act as the necessary changes suggested by the court were incorporated in the Administrative Tribunal Act.
In a landmark judgment in L.Chandra kumar vs. union of India (AIR 1997 SC 1125) a seven-member constitutional bench of the supreme court has unanimously while reconsidering the SAMPATH KUMAR'S CASE, has struck down clause 2(d) of articles 323A and clause 3(d) pf art. 323B which provided for the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the high courts under articles 226 and 227 and the Supreme Court under article 32 of the constitution as unconstitutional and invalid as they damage the power of judicial review which is the basic structure of the constitution.

Necessity of amending provision in the Constitution

It is made with a view to overcome the difficulties which may be encountered in the future in the working of the constitution.
The nature of amending "amending process" envisaged by the framers of our constitution can best be understood by referring the following observation of the late prime minister pt. Nehru, "while we want this constitution be as solid and permanent as we can make it, there is no permanence in the constitution. There should be certain flexibility. If you make anything rigid and permanent you stop the nation's growth, of a living vital, organic people…………. In any event, we could not make this constitution so rigid that it cannot be adopted to changing conditions. When the world is in a period of transition what we may do today may not be wholly applicable tomorrow" practically every constitution has some formal provisions for amendment of the constitution. In a rigid constitution amendment is more elaborate and difficult then enactment of ordinary legislation. In a flexible constitution, amendment can be effected rather easily, as easily as enacting an ordinary law.

The former procedure to amend some foreign federal constitutions as follows:

U.S.A.: In U.S.A., amendment of the constitution may be proposed only by congress, with the approval of 2/3 of majority of both houses (congress and senate), or a convention summoned on an application from 2/3 of the members of both houses. The proposed amendments must be ratified by at least ¾ of the total number of the state legislatures or by conventions in ¾ of the total numbers of the states.
SWITZERLAND: In Switzerland, no alteration of the constitution can be effected without resorting to a referendum.
AUSTRALIA: In Australia, the constitution can be altered only by an Act passed by an absolute majority in both houses, or in case one house refuses to pass it, by an Act passed by an absolute majority in either house, for the second time, after an interval of 3 months. But in either house the Act must be subjected to a referendum in each state. If in a majority of the states, a majority of the voters approve the amendment, it shall be presented to the governor general for the Royal assent. In INDIA the framers of the constitution devoted a separate chapter (20th ) towards the process and provisions of amendment of the provision of the constitution fall under 3 categories:

The power to amend the constitution conferred on parliament includes the power to amend art. 1 and logically would include the power to cede national territory in favour of a foreign state. (In re berubari union)

Saturday, April 28, 2012

RAS Public Administration 2007 Prel Solution

1
The basis of influence in informal organisation is

closeness with higher people

2
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Name of Writer) (A) Paul H. Appleby �. List-II (Book) 1. Big Democracy

A1, B3, C4, D2

3
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Name of Thinker) (A) Maslow �. List-II (Theory) 1. Need Hierarchy Thoery

A1, B4, C5, D3

4
A significant approach to communication event is based on Laswell formula, that deal with

communication- interpretation modes

5
Which one of the following leadership styles permits substantial delegation of authority to subordinates and allows them to set objective an solve problems themselves ?

democratic leadership

6
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (A) Veblen �. List-II 1. Professional Deformation

A4, B2, C1, D5
7
Which of the following book is called an apt text of Entrepreneurial Govt. ?

Reinventing government (David Osborne and Ted Gaeber)

8
Which one of the following is not created by Act of Parliament ?

?
9
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Book) (A) Oranizations �. List-II (Author) 1. March
4th choice is closest.

A4, B1, C3, D2

10
Which one of the following administrative theories is called Genric Management ?

administrative management

11
Which of the following is defined as a process of analysing and collecting information relation to operation and responsibilities of a specific job ?

job analysis

12
For which of the following the President's recommendation is required for introduction of Bill ?

both 1 & 2

13
To whom the Union Service Commission presents its annual report as to work done by the Commission ?

president
14
On which date the Governor of Rajasthan assented The Rajasthan Panchayat Raj Act ?

23rd april, 1994

15
Consider the following advantages claimed by the Centre for All India Services. �. (A) Control over State Administration �. Which are correct in above ?

B, C & D

16
When was the first Central Service Commission set up ?

1926

17
Who had coined the term All India Service ?

committee on division of Function,1918

18
Who was called the Father of Local Self Government during British Rule ?

Ripon

19
Which one is not mission of organisation development ?

avoid human emotions

20
The tenure system for Civil Services in India was started during the period of

curzon

21
Which one of the following country first developed scientific method for recruitment ?

china

22
Administration is a moral act and administrator is a moral agent.' Who said it ?

Ordway Tead

23
Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act has made provisions for Gram Sabha. Which Articles of above Act is related with Gram Sabha ?

Articles 1,2,3,4,5

24
There will be one or more Vigilance Committees to supervise the functions, implementation of schemes and other activities of Gram Panchayat in Rajasthan. Who will constitute the Vigilance Committee ?

gram sabha

25
The middle-tier of Panchayati Raj Institution in Rajasthan in Panchayat Samiti, which is compsed by �. (A) Direct elected members for Panchayat Samiti

A & C

26
Consider the following with reference to Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act. �. (A) Direct Elections of members as all levels �. Which of above are existed in Rajasthan ?

A, B, D

27
Who will make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of Govt. of India and for allocation among Ministers of the said business ?

president

28
Under which Article of Constitution the Governor of State is bound to lay before House of Legislature the Annual Financial Statement of State ?

Article 202

29
In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination an Management of Civil Services is divided between :

Treasury and home department

30
Who is in-charge of Office of Public Service and Science in Britain ?
Chancellor of Exchequer

31
The term 'Economic and Social Planning' is included in Indian Constitution. In which part of following this provision has been made ?

concurrent list

32
Who was the first Lokayukta of Rajasthan ?

I G Dua

33
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Kind of Budget) (A) Line Item Budget �. List-II (Basic Orientation of Budget) 1. Control

A1, B4, C2, D3

34
Personnel administration of employees of Zila Parishad and Panchayat Samiti in Rajasthan is managed by

state government

35
The Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in England is Parliamentary Omudsman. Consider the following : �. (A) is independent of Govt. �. What are the characteristics of Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration ?

A, B and D

36
Which one is not characteristics of 'Sala Model' of Riggs ?

actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations

37
Discussion on organisation of Planning Commission is incomplete without reference to its attached bodies. Consider the following �. (A) Programme Evaluation Organisation �. Which organisations are attached to Planning Commission ?

A and C

38
In which year the institution of Lokayaukta was established in Rajasthan ?

1973

39
Who has recommended for productive planning with a constitutional status in India ?

KC Neogi

40
"The Collector sometimes when overburdened with work, grumbles that he has the life of a dog, but knows that he has work of a man.' Who said it ?

Mangat Rai

41
The CLECTS in prismatic society of Riggs are

Elite groups who use traditional clouts to win election

42
In a communication process, the sender of information seeks to establish a commonness with the receiver of information. Consider the following : �. (A) When interacting with others, words, letters etc. are used �. What are the characteristics of communication ?

D

43
Who has coined the term Cybernetics ?

Norbett Weiner

44
Consider the following steps : (A) Identification of problem �. Which of the above is the correct step of decision-making ?

A,B,C,D

45
According to Likert, which of the following types of leadership is the most successful and effective ?

participative

46
The Theory X assumption did not cover which of the following ?

most of workers not inherently dislike work.

47
Which one of the following is covered under Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

jurisdiction of functions of panchayats

48
Which one of the following is not the merit of Rank classification ?

it defines the contents of any job in detail

49
Which of the following Provisions of Indian Constitution provides constitutional safeguards to Civil Servants ?

Article 311

50
Before the introduction of money bill in Lok Sabha, whose recommendation is necessary ?

president

51
The reservation in appointments in favour of any backward class has a constitutional base. In which Article of Indian Constitution such provision has been made ?

Article 16(iv)

52
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Statements) (A) Budget is series of goals with price tag attached �. List-II (Thinkers) 1. Kautilya

A4,B3,C2,D1

53
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Thinkers) (A) Mouney and Reile �. List-II (Kinds of Leadership) 1. Institutionists, Specials, Hybrids

A2,B3,C1,D4

54
No Tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of Law'. Which Article of Indian Constitution provides this ?

265

55
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Item) (A) Constutution of Municipalities �. List-II (Articles of the Constitution) 1. 243 Q

A1,B2,C3,D4

56
Which one of the following Writs gives the direction of an official for performance of duty ?

mandamus

57
Which of the following are the tools of budgetary control exercised by the Parliament ?

A and B

58
Which one of the following is not the function of Public Officials ?

to make the decision on policy

59
Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of French Civil Services ?

Ecole Polytechnique does not conduct training for higher technical corps

60
The 'quorum' for meetings of any Panchayati Raj body as per Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act is
1/10 of total members

61
The elections for various Panchayati Raj bodies in Rajasthan are managed by

state election commission

62
The body of apex of the system of Administrative Court in France is the

council of state

63
Who among the following is considered as first comparativist in Public Administration ?

Woodrow wilson

64
Which of the following is not characteristic of Development Administration ?

effectiveness

65
Which one of the following is not correct about anonymity of Civil Servants ?

they cannot be held responsible for their acts of omission and commission

66
In Rajasthan, State Planning Board was created on the recommendation of

Rajasthan administrative reforms committee, 1967

67
The Chief Secretary's Job is not a technician's or even a professional's, he is not a knowledgable engineer, nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Govt. and in a democratic republic, part of human process.' Who said it ?

?

68
Heuristics' in context of decision making imply

Error and trial method

69
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Model) (A) Linking Pin Model �. List-II (Given by) 1. Mc Gregor

A2,B3,C4,D1

70
Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers shall be collective responsible to the House of People. Reason (R) : The Minister shall hold office during the pleasre of President.

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

71
Assertion (A) : Ordinances should be promulgated only where absolutely necessary. A responsible Govt. should be careful about it. Reason (R) : It gives the executive a clear power to legislate and is an encroachment on the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

72
Consider the following statements : (A) Budget is an economic horoscope of the country �. Which of the above are characteristics of Budget ?

B, C and D

73
While making comparison with private administration, who said that Public Administration us adrift wit compass or anchor ?

Ludwig von Mises

74
Who said that in the science of administration whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency ?

75
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Statements) (A) Public Administration stand in danger of senescence �. List-II (Authors) 1. Martin Landau

A4,B3,C2,D1

76
Who said that Politics has to do with policies or expression of State will while Administration has to do with the execution of these policies ?

Goodnow

77
Who said that administration is knowledge, knowledge is power. Administration is power, this simplistic syllogism is major reality of our post-industrial age.

John F Kennedy

78
Organisation is the form of every human association for attainment of a common purpose. Who has given this definition ?

Simon

79
Willy-nilly, administration is every one's concern. If we wish to survive, we had better be intelligent about it. Who said it ?

Adams Brooks

80
Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form. Who said it ?
?

81
Which one is not characteristics of closed model of organisation ?

conflict within organisation is adjusted by interaction with peers

82
Which one of the following is not a driving paradigm of New Public Management ?

emphasis on procedure

83
Public Management is merger of normative orientation of Traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of general management. Who said it ?

Christopher Hood

84
Who was the first person to give red-tape its sociological baptism ?

Spencer

85
Who said that organisation is the machine of management in its achievement of the ends determined by administration ?

Oliver Sheldon

86
Which of the following is concerned with the modification of role expectancies and welding of divergent elements of preserve organisation integrity ?

Bakke's Fusion Process

87
The older thoery of organisation is not science, as often claimed, but theology is sense that it is a set of beliefs accepted on faith, not on demonstration of empirical reality. Who has given this statement ?

Herbert simon

88
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Organisation) (A) Project Organisation �. List-II (Characteristics) 1. Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship

A1,B4,C2,D3

89
Assertion (A) : Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration come close to being a philosophy of life. Reason (R) : Administration is concerned with both ends and means

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

90
Assertion (A) : The Principle of Organisation is from the literature of Business Administration. Reason (R) : There is larger area of overlapping interest and ideas between two fields, however, and in the matter of organisational analysis. Public Administration is heavily indebted to Business Administration

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

91
Assertion (A) : Administration is a fine art. Reason (R) : It summons an imposing body of special talents on behalf of a collaborative creation which is integral to the conduct of civilized living today

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

92
Assertion (A) : Open an theorists dislike the rigidity, the inflexibility, emphasis on means and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy. Reason (R) : Close model theorists consider organisation as a fluid network structure.

A is true but R is false

93
Assertion (A) : Generalists play an important role in the policy function of the Govt. in India. Reason (R) : A large number of top post in the Union and State Administrations are manned by the speecialists.

A is true but R is false

94
Assertion (A) : The system approach is based on the concept that organisation should be studied as a whole because the behaviour of one part has a considerable impact on the others. Reason (R) : The system approach ignores the interactions between a system and its environment.

A is true but R is false

95
Assertion (A) : The concept of civil service neutrality is changing in developing countries. Reason (R) : Civil servants play a povotal role in the developing countries.

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

96
Assertion (A) : Paul Appleby suggested two basic types of changes in administration, constant and episoic Reason (R) : Constant change is reorganisation and episodic is incremental change

A is true but R is false

97
Assertion (A) : The grapevine supplements the formal sources of information in the organisation. It has its usefulness in organisation life. Reason (R) : It creates an actual system of relationship in the organisation which is vastly different from what is formally prescribe

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

98
Assertion (A) : Administrative State is the name given to that State in which the executive branch is dominate one even though it has the legislature and the judiciary. Reason (R) : The function of Publci Administration have expanded in scale, range and nature

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

99
Bureaucracy is the term usually applied to a system of Govt. to control of which is so completely in the hands of officials that their power jeopardise the liberty of ordinary citizens.' Who has given this statement ?

H J Laski

100
Which one is major role of formal organisation ?

profitability of enterprises

Wednesday, April 18, 2012

Article:Empowering Women Rebuilding the Society

Empowering Women Rebuilding the Society

“To awaken the people, it is the women who must be awakened. Once she is on the move, the family moves, the village moves, the nation moves”.-Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

In India, today, women appear to rule the roost. India as a nation is revered in a feminine form i.e. ‘the Bharat Mata’, the first citizen of our country presently is a woman, many important government posts are occupied by women and educated women are pouring into the professional workforce with profound implications for national and multinational corporations. However, ironically, these are accompanied by news about dowry killings, female infanticide, domestic violence against women, sexual harassment, rape, illegal trafficking and prostitution and myriad others of the same ilk. Gender discrimination prevails in almost all areas, be it social, cultural, economic or educational. An effective remedy for these evils needs to be sought in order to ensure the Right to Equality guaranteed by the Constitution of India, to the fairer sex. Gender equality facilitates the empowerment of women. Since education begins at home, the upliftment of women would be accompanied by the development of the family, the society and in turn, would lead towards a holistic development of the nation.

Among these problems the foremost that needs to be addressed is the atrocity committed against females at birth and during childhood. Female infanticide i.e. killing of the female child is still a common practice in many of the rural areas. Further female foeticide is common in some parts of India, despite the passage of ‘Prenatal Diagnostic techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act in 1994. In case they survive, they are subjected to discrimination throughout their lives. Traditionally, since sons are thought to take care of their parents during old age and daughters are considered a burden because of dowry and other expenses that have to be incurred during their marriage, female children are neglected in the matters of nutrition, education and other important aspects of well-being. The Sex ratio in our country is abysmally low. It was only 933 females per 1000 males according to the 2001 census. The Sex ratio is an important indicator of development. Developed countries usually have Sex ratios above 1000. For instance, the USA has a Sex ratio of 1029, Japan 1041 and Russia 1140. In India, Kerala is the state with the highest Sex ratio of 1058 and Haryana is one with the lowest value of 861.

During their youth, females face the problem of early marriage and childbirth. They are not cared for properly during pregnancy leading to many cases of maternal mortality. The MMR (Maternal Mortality Rate) i.e. the number of females dying during delivery per one lakh persons, in India is 437(as in 1995). In addition, they are subjected to harassment for dowry and other forms of domestic violence. Further, at the work place, public places and elsewhere, acts of violence, exploitation and discrimination are rampant.

Various steps have been taken by the government to prevent such abuses and to empower women. Criminal laws against sati, dowry, female infanticide and foeticide, ‘eve teasing’, rape, immoral trafficking and other offences relating to women have been enacted in addition to civil laws like the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 and other Matrimonial enactments. The Prevention of Domestic Violence Act has been passed in 2005. A National Commission for Women (NCW) has been set up. Other measures by the government include provision of reservation in representation and education, allocation for the welfare of women in the five year plans, provision of subsidized loan facilities and so on. The year 2001 has been declared as the ‘women empowerment year’ by the Government of India and 24^th January as the National Girl Child Day.

The 108^th Constitutional Amendment Bill, popularly known as the Women’s Reservation Bill which seeks to reserve one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies has been a highlight in the recent times. It was ‘passed’ in the Rajya Sabha on March 9^th 2010. Though well intended, it can have little, if any, tangible consequences for the real empowerment of women since it does not touch upon the core issues which plague them. The solution must envisage a two-pronged attack, on the one hand, on tradition which is responsible for assigning a low status for women in the society and on the other hand, the outrages perpetrated against them. The proposed ‘Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace’ Bill, 2010 is a good move in that direction. Mass campaigns need to be organized especially in the villages in favour of survival of the female child and provision of human rights for her, including education and health. It is essential to dispel the ghosts of the past and place women on an equal footing with men in order to pave the way for their empowerment, social, economic and educational. Empowering women and thus rebuilding the society would take the nation on a path of greater development, as Swami Vivekananda says, “Countries and Nations which do not respect women have never become great nor will ever be in future”.

Monday, April 9, 2012

Lokpal Bill: A Drama Unfold

Lokpal Bill: A Drama Unfold

The Jan Lokpal Bill campaign began in January 2011 in the backdrop of the publicity that accompanied the several mega-scams that surfaced in 2010, notably those relating to the Commonwealth Games and the telecom spectrum allocations. It caught the public imagination with Anna Hazare's fast at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi in April 2011. That forced the UPA government to constitute a joint drafting committee for a Lokpal bill. The civil society representatives in the committee proposed a bill called the Jan Lokpal bill, which became the basis for discussions. The basic principles on which the bill was drafted were culled from the United Nations Convention against Corruption, which required all countries to put in place anti-corruption investigative agencies that would be independent of the executive government and would have the jurisdiction to investigate all public servants for corruption.

The Lok Sabha passed a historic Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2011, but defeated a parallel Constitution (116th Amendment) Bill, which would have given the Lokpal constitutional status. On December 22, the government introduced the Bill along with the Constitution (116th Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha. However the UPA government didn’t put it to vote in the Upper House. This Bill incorporated some of the recommendations of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice. This was a completely new Bill as the government had withdrawn its previous Lokpal Bill, which it introduced in the Lok Sabha on August 4, 2011, and later referred to the Standing Committee. The Standing Committee tabled its report on December 9, 2011. The August Bill did not propose to confer constitutional status on the Lokpal. The Standing Committee recommended constitutional status so that the Lokpal had higher stature and increased legitimacy. The committee believed that constitutional status would enhance the legal and moral authority of the Lokpal institution and also insulate the basic principles of the Lokpal from the vicissitudes of ordinary or transient majorities.

Yet, the Lok Sabha, which passed the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill with a few amendments, rejected the Constitution (116th Amendment) Bill, which required two-thirds majority of the House present and voting for its passage. The object of the Constitution Amendment Bill is laudable as it seeks to create an autonomous and independent Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the States with powers of superintendence and direction over investigation and prosecution of public servants accused of corruption. Yet, it failed to secure the requisite support in the Lok Sabha because members found a huge gap between its object and the provisions of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill.

During the debate in Parliament, the opposition was critical of the government's control over the selection and removal of members of the Lokpal. But the Standing Committee report shows that it wanted to dilute the provisions with regard to selection and removal in the Bill that was introduced in August. That Bill had proposed a nine-member selection committee, five of whom would have been government nominees. The Standing Committee recommended a four-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India (CJI), an eminent Indian nominated unanimously by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. The December Bill proposes five members, of whom three should be government nominees – the Prime Minister, the Speaker, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha – and the CJI or a judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the CJI, and one eminent jurist nominated by the President. Had the government accepted the Standing Committee's recommendation, it could have dented somewhat the opposition's criticism.

Though the Bill kept the CBI with the government, it allowed the Lokpal to have its own anti-corruption investigative body. It eliminated the need to get prior sanction for investigation from the government. It provided for the confiscation of the assets of corrupt public servants and the recovery of losses caused by their acts of corruption from them. But it created a terribly cumbersome procedure for investigation, by which a preliminary inquiry and hearing of the corrupt public servant were made compulsory before investigation could begin. This ended the possibility of making surprise raids and seizures on the premises of corrupt public servants or their abettors. The Bill of August provided that the Lokpal would have its own investigation and prosecution wings. The Standing Committee, however, sought to dilute this by recommending instead that the Lokpal conduct a preliminary inquiry, after which the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) would investigate. Also, the CBI would have autonomy over its investigation.

The committee also proposed that the Lokpal will have a supervisory role over the CBI in cases relating to Group A and B officers. The Bill of December further diluted these recommendations. The Lokpal, it says, shall refer a preliminary inquiry against Group A, B, C and D employees to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). The Bill further says that after conducting the inquiry, the CVC shall submit a report to the Lokpal in the case of Group A and B employees and proceed according to specified procedure in the case of Group C and D staff. The CVC, according to the current Bill, shall send periodic reports to the Lokpal on its cases.

The Rajya Sabha witnessed a sordid drama. Several parties which had walked out in the Lok Sabha (the Samajwadi Party and the Bahujan Samaj Party) or had not moved any amendments there (the Trinamool Congress) moved amendments in the Rajya Sabha and their representatives delivered fiery speeches opposing the provisions of the Bill. When it became clear that at least three of the amendments (those relating to the selection and removal of Lokpal members, the CBI being brought under the administrative control of the Lokpal, and the deletion of the chapter on Lokayuktas in the States) were likely to be passed, the government engineered disturbances in the House, resorted to filibustering and prevented the amendments from being voted upon. And the House was prorogued with the Bill hanging in the air.The drama in the Rajya Sabha showed that the government was not even willing to go by the will of Parliament. This gives rise to fundamental questions about the functioning of Indian democracy.

The Bill adds that if a prima facie case exists against a public servant, the Lokpal may refer it to the CBI for investigation. Also, it may refer a case for preliminary inquiry to the CBI (other than Group A, B, C and D officers). The Bill also provides that the Lokpal shall exercise general superintendence over the CBI (similar to the CVC's supervision currently). These additional dilutions in the later Bill, according to critics, reduce the Lokpal to just a post office.

The committee recommended that the Lokpal conduct only the preliminary inquiry and that it be authorised to initiate it suo motu. In such cases, the inquiry would have to be done by a five-member Lokpal Bench that is not connected with the suo motu initiation. More important, the accused would not get an opportunity to be heard at this stage, though the Bill of August allowed that. The later Bill rejects both these recommendations and sticks to the August version, which provided that the Lokpal could initiate an inquiry only on the basis of a complaint by a citizen. The only concession the Bill makes is that the Lokpal shall have its own inquiry wing to conduct a preliminary inquiry on a complaint it has received and has decided can be inquired into.

Under Article 252 or 253

Some parties questioned that lokpal bill should be brought under article 253 & not under article 252.

Article 252: Article 252. Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption of such legislation by any other State

(1) If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States to be desirable that any of the matters with respect to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the States except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by Parliament by law, and if resolutions to that effect are passed by all the House of the Legislatures of those States, it shall be lawful for Parliament to pass an Act for regulating that matter accordingly, and any Act so passed shall apply to such States and to any other State by which it is adopted afterwards by resolution passed in that behalf by the House or, where there are two Houses, by each of the Houses of the Legislature of that State.

(2) Any Act so passed by Parliament may be amended or repealed by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner but shall not, as respects any State to which it applies, be amended or repealed by an Act of the Legislature of that State

Article 253: Article 253. Legislation for giving effect to international agreements Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.

Relation between Union and States

The relation between Union and States is the very bedrock of the Indian Federal system. India is a federal State with a national government and a government of each constituent state. Although the structure of India is federal in a general way, yet there are certain aspects that are unique to federalism as practiced in India. The Indian government follows a strong central bias.

Some of the special features of India are as follows:

Agreement between the States: If two states agree that the Parliament can legally make laws with respect to the two states, then the Parliament can make laws relating to any law or set of laws related to the State Laws. This is an extension of the Parliamentary legislative as laid down by the Article 252 of the Indian Constitution.

Implementation of Treaties: The Parliament makes laws for the implementation of treaties, even if the subject falls under the legislative power of the State, for the bigger international interest of the country. This power has been given to the Union by the Article 253.

Suggested Amendments: Team Anna had suggested 34 amendments to rectify the government's Bill, and pointed out that four of these were critical to making the Lokpal a workable institution. These were that the selection and removal procedure should be made independent of the government; the CBI should be brought under the Lokpal's administrative control or, alternatively, the Lokpal should have its own investigative body; all government servants should be brought under the Lokpal's investigative ambit; and the procedure for investigation should be in line with the normal criminal investigation procedure. But the government was adamant in not accepting any of these either, and went on to bulldoze the passage of its Bill. It rejected all the amendments moved by the Opposition in the Lower House.

Notices for 187 Amendments in Rajya Sabha

Notice had been given for as many as 187 amendments to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill, 2011 including from the Trinamool Congress for deletion of the entire Part III of the Bill regarding establishment of the Lokayuktas. The Biju Janata Dal and the Shiromani Akali Dal too had given similar notices. By afternoon, the Rajya Sabha had received 173 amendment notices. The number swelled to 187 by evening as announced by the Minister of State for Personnel V. Narayanasamy. Normally notices are taken 24 hours in advance but on Thursday, notices were accepted till late evening, while the government took the stand in the House that there were too many amendments which “needed consideration.”

Among major amendments were the ones given by the Bharatiya Janata Party for deletion of words “not less than” 50 per cent of members of Lokpal belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled tribes, Other Backward Classes, Minorities and Women in Clause 3. They also asked for deletion of the word ‘Minorities' in Clause 3 and inclusion of Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha on Selection Committee in Clause 4. They also wanted Lokpal to appoint his secretary and not select from a panel given by the government.

The Communist Party of India (Marxist) gave amendment for replacement of eminent jurist on the Selection Committee with “an eminent person to be nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner, Comptroller and Auditor General and Union Public Service Commission. They also wanted the Inquiry Wing under the Lokpal to be replaced by “Investigation Wing” with the Central government providing officers and staff under exclusive jurisdiction of the Lokpal as decided in consultation with the Lokpal. The Party gave another amendment for inclusion under the Lokpal of “any corporate body, its promoters, its officers including Director against whom there is a complaint of corruption in relation to grant of government licence, lease, contract, agreement or any other action to influence government policy through corrupt means.” They wanted Lokpal to take suo motu action in a compliant of corruption.

Other Angle

Passing of “Lokpal” Bill seems quite an impossible task,because every party to it has its interest.The UPA government summarily “checkmated” the social activists and drove them into existential crisis while simultaneously reducing the Lokpal bill to a maere a game tool. At the moment, the activists will be happier with the “no bill at all” than the current version of the bill tabled by the government. None of the political parties wants the Lokpal bill. Even if individual politicians want it, they can’t do a thing about it because their “High Command” does not want it. But the country’s future is at stake. The politicians are out to maintain the status-quo in order to protect their corrupt practices and ill-gotten wealth. But Team Anna has accepted this mission and is not going to relent until their goals are met. Team Anna rallied the masses and raised hopes of a utopian tomorrow - one with a clean and independent CBI under an incorruptible Lokpal. But after an entire year of wrangling with the government.

Meanwhile, the elections in UP are round the corner, and the Congress has been expanding its reach with some crafty electoral mathematics, a specialization offered at the Allahabad University. Ajit Singh is already in the bag. He was traded the lucrative civil aviation ministry in return for joining the Congress electoral alliance in UP. Likewise, the Railway Ministry is being “dangled” in front of Mulayam Singh Yadav of the SP. Doing well in the UP elections will surely serve as a shot in the arm for the Congress. First, it might cause a mental breakdown for Mayawati, especially after the election commission decided to cover her statues across the state. Secondly, it sets the stage for Rahul Gandhi’s coronation as the PM. Besides, it will also give the Congress greater leverage against Didi.

On the other side of this pitched battle is the opportunistic BJP, which recently threw open its gates for Mayawati discards in UP. In contrast, the same BJP passed a strong Lokayutkha bill in Uttarkhand. The BJP’s goal is simple - stall the bill, harp on the government’s incompetence, and cash in on the general discontent in the country, in hope of riding an anti-corruption wave to get back in power. The battle lines are drawn. On one side is the Congress party and its fickle, calculative allies. The leading trouble-maker among the allies is the TMC. The Congress needs her now and she knows that. Her primary long-term goal is to put the CPI(M) out of business in W. Bengal. But at present, everything she does is to extract the maximum from the Congress.

Conclusion

India’s politicians again stand discredited in the eyes of people, who are asking questions to which the politicians, both the ruling party and the opposition, do not have an answer. If we truly want to make India corruption free we need to look at the new generation. Yes the government can help — first by cleaning up their administration and then by punishing corrupt people so severely that punishment becomes a deterrent to corruption. The government can support and reward honesty — reward people who pay taxes instead of harassing them and go after the people who do not pay taxes and yet lead opulent lives. Rewarding honesty and penalising dishonesty will create an ecosystem that supports a life of integrity. Let the honest man be privileged and acknowledged so that people aspire to be honest.

We need to target schools and colleges; motivate the youngsters to take charge so that they can start changing the world around them. We have to stop paying the cop for traffic offences, and we have to have the will to fight each time a bribe is asked of us. The people of India need the media now — the media that catapulted the movement to fame needs to open an action line where every act of corruption can be reported and exposed. Because this battle can be won, this change can be made and we do not need regulation to do so.

Coalition Politics: Future of Indian Political System

Coalition Politics: Future of Indian Political System

Coalition Politics is a time tested thing in Modern Democracy. TheconceptofCoalition Politics basically draws its roots fromthe times when warring states sometimesused to allywith each other inorder to defeat of a common enemies, as in Vedic Civilisation’s Dasragya war, Nizams & British coalition verses Marathas . In recent times in India got a taste of Coalition Politics at the state levelwhen the Left front comprisingof Communist Party of India (CPI), CPI (Marxist) and others formed the first ever Coalition Governmentin IndiaatWestBengalwith Mr. Jyoti Basu as the Chief Minister (succeeded by Mr. Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee)whichtill datehasn’t been defeated. At the national level the first ever coalition government was formed underthe PrimeMinistership ofLate Shri MorarjiDesai Jiwhich existedfrom24th March 1977 to 15th July 1979 headed by nowan insignificantJanata Party (who reputation has nowbeen acquired by its breakaway section which formed the Bharatiya Janata Party). Since 1996 Indian Politics has been dominated with CoalitionGovernmentswhichbyfar have been stable after a shaky start.The incumbent Prime Minister of India Dr. Manmohan Singh is heading a coalition Government of 15 parties called the United ProgressiveAlliance (UPA)with Mrs. SoniaGandhi, beingitsChairperson which isholding asecond terminOffice.

The term‘coalition’ is derived from the Latin word ‘coalitio” which is the verbal substantive of coalesce which means to grow together. However, as actually used, it somewhat belies it nominal meaning, ‘for the units or the elements brought into combinationby a coalition very seldom grow together in any literal sense. According to the dictionarymeaning coalitionmeans an act of coalescing, or uniting into one body: a union of persons, states: alliance. In the strict political sense the word coalitionis usedfor ‘allianceortemporary unioninto asingle governmentof distinct parties ormembers of distinct parties. It is also generally accepted that a coalition

can takeplace onlywithin thecontexts of mixedmotive inwhich both conflict and common interest are simultaneously present and must govern the Course. Political coalition or political alliance is an agreement for cooperation between different political parties on common political agenda, often for purposes of contesting anelection tomutuallybenefit bycollectivelyclearingelectionthresholds or otherwise benefiting from characteristics of thevoting systemor for government formation after elections. A coalition government is a cabinet of a parliamentary government in which several parties cooperate. The usual reasongiven for this arrangement is that noparty onits owncanachieveamajority inthe parliament. In such times, parties haveformed all-partycoalitions (national unity governments, grand coalitions). If a coalition collapses a confidence vote is held or a motion of no confidence is taken.

Coalition and/or minority governments were rare between 1947 and 1989when the CongressPartywon majorities of seats in the Lok Sabha (LowerHouse),based on only pluralities of 40 to 48 percent of the vote. These victorieswere anartifact of the first-pastthe- post electoral system’s disproportional seat-vote ratio bywhich theleading party getsdisproportionately moreseatsthanvotesinpercentageterms. As like any other democracy, political parties represent different sections amongthe Indiansocietyandregions, and their core values play amajor role in the politics of India. Both the executive branch and the legislative branch of the government are run by the representatives ofthepoliticalpartieswho have been elected through the elections. Through theelectoral process,the people of India choose which majority in the lower house; a government can be formed bythat partyor thecoalition. The full-term stability of the NDA and the endurance of theUPAfor eight years as of today, has also been due to the fact that coalitions in India since 1996 have been characterized to a large degree by spatial compatibility, that is, they consist of a patchwork quilt of parties that have state-specific bases and do not compete on each other’s turf. This enables even minoritycoalitions dependenton outside support to last, combined with the fact that intheUPA’scase thesupporting Left parties,whatevertheirdissatisfactionwith Congress policies do not wish to create an opportunity for the BJP to return to power.

Experts saythatCoalitionPolitics is result of rise of Regional Parties on agendas ofNational Importance.One of the reasons for the growing importance ofRegional Partieshas beentheir success inarticulating theinterestsoftheassertive backward castes and Dalits or ‘untouchables’. These parties remain ‘regional’ intermsof geographic location, butarenationalintermsof issuesrelevant tothecountryasawhole.Theirrolewithin thenational coalitionis also indicative of amore competitive and polarised party system.Cabinetsbasedonacoalitionwith majority in parliament, ideally aremore stable and long-lived than minority cabinets while the former are prone to internal struggles, they have less reason to fear votes of no confidence. Sometimes grand coalitions of two large partiesalso occur, but these are relatively rare and large parties usually prefer to associate with small ones. However, if none of the larger parties can receive enough votes to form their preferred coalition, a grandcoalition mightbe their only choice for forming a government. In many democratic countries, such as Germany, France, India, Israel and Italy, government by a coalition of political parties isconsidered normal.This debate is closely related to issues of voting reform, as countrieswith some formof proportionalrepresentation tendto have more political parties in parliament than those that use a first-past-the-post system, and so are more likely to have coalition governments.

The basic essence of federalism is the notion of two or more orders of government combining the elements of ‘shared rule’ for some purpose and regional ‘self rule’ for others. It is based on the objective of combining unity and diversity. This means accommodating, preserving and promoting distinct identities within a larger political union. The noted constitutional authority, DurgaDasBasuwrote that Constitution of India is basically federal, butof course withstriking unitaryfeatures. According to Nani Palkivala, Indian Constitution provides for a cooperative federalism among states with a bias in favour of the Centre. He was of the view that if the Constitutionisworked in theright spirit, there would be no need to consider any amendment asfar ascentre-state relation is concerned. He further said that the problem has arisen to-day in an acute formbecause over a period of years the Centrehas acted in amanner inwhich at best has beencontrary tothe spirit of the Constitution. Article-1 of the Constitutionmentioned that‘India, that is, Bharat shall beUnion of States’. If this articleis analysedit providesthemessage that there shouldbemore of cooperation and understanding than the concept of domination andconflict.Theconflict that occuredin theIndian Federalprocess are due to the conflict between party in the power at the Centre and the parties in opposition to it which control some of the states. In all federal system, and, in particular, what are called polyethnic unions there is a conflict of values between those of the nation and the subnationswhich constitute theUnion. Inacoalitionsituation, governments are forced to build consensus amongst the allies. In theory, to the extent that these efforts at consensus building are debated on the merits of the issues involved, coalition governments are actually healthy. Inpractice,however, the perception that these negotiations amongst allies sometimes amount to unhealthy andunethical quid-pro-quos, is gaining ground. The recent cash-forvotes issue that erupted in Parliament, and widespread media coverage about the kinds of ‘deals’ that have been struck with various allies to get support for the India-USnuclear agreement, Rail Budget, FDI in retail, Srilanka issue and many more have only reinforced our concerns about tenuousnatureof coalitionpolitics. If we as a nation are likely to live with coalition politics, there are some important issues we need to consider. Hollow as it might sound, we need a massive push for enforceable ethics reforms among political parties, how partiesraise funds,howtheyspend them, howmuch of it needs to be transparent and otherrelated issues.As a country, we cannotwait for a chance discovery of an oasis in the desert to save us. This needs a concerted effort of citizens fromacross the country to push for higher standards inpublic life.

Reasons for Coalition Politics in India areasfollows:

1.Growth of Regional Political Parties:Growth of regional parties has been reason for the emergence of coalition politics in India.

2.Inability to Represent India’s diversity: Coalition politics also thrives because of the inability of national parties to continue to give a feeling to the diverse population in India that they are able to adequately representtheirdisparate interests. pc. The BJP’s vote share increased fromabout 11 pc in 1989 to a little below 25 pc in recent elections.

3.Lose ofTrust: The tendencyof the national partiesto speakof national level issues, and to force coherence in thepolitics andviews on issues, is at oddswith our extremely diverse population. In the initial years, to the extent that theCongress party wasable to accommodate regional/ local interests and reflect their aspirations, it was possible to maintain a large single party identity. Butover theyears, regional and caste identities have begun to increasinglyassert themselvesin the political space.

4.The moral degeneration in politics: Combinedwith regional parties’ ability provide credible alternatives to theCongress party in the states, led to a situation, where ‘horse trading’ became relatively commoninunsettling state governments. The brazenmanner in which political parties traded MLAs ledto thepassage of the antidefection lawin 1985.

MERITS & DEMERITS OF COALITION POLITICS

Merits

1.The coalition government addresses the regional disparity more than the single party rule.

2.Coalition government is more democratic, and hence fairer, because it represents a much broaderspectrumofpublic opinion than government by one party alone. In almost all coalitions, a majority of citizens voted for the partieswhich formthe government and so their views and interests are represented in political decisionmaking.

3.Coalition government creates a more honest and dynamic political system, allowing voters a clearer choice at election time. It is also easier for parties to split, or new ones to be formed, as newpolitical issues divide opinion, because new parties still have a chance of a share inpolitical power.

4.Coalitions provide good government becausetheir decisions are made in the interests of a majority of the people.A coalition government better reflects the popular opinion of the electorate within a country.

5.Coalition government provides more continuity in administration. Amore consensual style of politics also allows for amore gradual and constructiveshift ofpolicy between administrations.

6.Such government functions on principle of politics of consensus. Besides, states are given more powers, and the base of concept of federalismis strengthened.

7.Government will be more consensus based: resulting policies will be broadly approved of for the benefit of the nation.

8.Better representation of the electorate’swishes 10. Better quality of policy: enhanced scrutiny and increased attention paid to each policy

9.Increased continuity: election does not lead to dramatic overhaul whichcan producefragmented rule

10.Yet instability apart, coalition governments have been effective in enhancing democratic legitimacy, representativeness, and national unity.

Demerits

1.Coalition government is actually less democratic as the balance of poweris inevitablyheld by thesmall partieswhocan bartertheir support for concessions from the main groupswithin the coalition.

2.Coalition government is less transparent, Because a party has no real chance of forming a government alone, themanifestos they present to the public become irrelevant and often wildly unrealistic.

3.Coalitions providebad government because they are unable to take a long termview.

4.Coalition governments are very unstable, often collapsing and reforming at frequent intervals – Italy, for example, averages more than onegovernment peryear since 1945. This greatly restricts the ability of governments to dealwith major reforms and means that politicians seldom stay in any particularministerial post for long enough to get to grips with its demands.

5.Coalition governments are definitely far less effective, not durable, and non-dependable as compared to the governments formed by any one party with a definite ideology and principles.

6.In coalition governments, MLAs and MPs from all the parties are given portfolios/ministries and appointed as Ministers. These ministers are appointed on the recommendations of the parent party, without taking the qualification, characterandcriminal /clean record of the MLAs and MPs.

From above discussion it can be concluded that since India is a diverse countrywith different ethnic, linguistic, and religious communities, it also has diverseideologies.Dueto this, thebenefit that acoalition hasis thatit leadstomore consensus based politics and reflects the popularopinion of theelectorate.Inorder to have stable coalitions, it is necessary that political parties moderate their ideologiesand programmes.Theyshould bemore opento takeothers pointof view as well. They must accommodate each other’s interests and concerns. In India, parties donot alwaysagree onthe correct path for government policy. Different parties havedifferent interestsand beliefs and it is difficult to sustain a consensus on issues when disagreement arises. However, this is not to say that we have never had successful coalitions. Governments in W. Bengal, Kerala, N.D.A. last ministry as well as present U.P.A. Government led by Congress (twice) at centre have been successful coalition.

Friday, March 30, 2012

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

Constitution of India in Hindi
PREAMBLE
CITIZENSHIP
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
DIRECTIVES PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
THE UNION
THE STATES
THE STATES IN PART B OF THE FIRST SCHEDULE
THE UNION TERRITORIES
THE PANCHAYATS
THE MUNICIPALITIES
THE SCHEDULED AND TRIBAL AREAS
RELATION BETWEEN UNION AND STATES
THE FINANCE,PROPERTY CONTRACTS AND SUITS
TRADE COMMERCE AND INTERCOURSE WITHIN
SERVICES UNDER UNION AND STATES
THE TRIBUNALS
THE ELECTIONS
SPECIAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO CERTAIN CLASSES
OFFICIAL LANGUAGES
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
MISCELLENEOUS
AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION
TEMPORARY,TRANSITIONAL AND SPECIAL PROVISIONS

Constitution of India In English
PREFACE

SCHEDULES I TO XII
CONTENTS
PARTS I TO XXII
APPENDIX I &II
INDEX

Thursday, March 29, 2012

COSTITUTION OF INDIA

Constitution of India in Hindi, English PDF Format

Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers and duties, government and spells out the fundamental rights, directive principles and duties of citizens. It is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world, containing 444 articles in 26 parts, 12 schedules and 94 amendments, for a total of 117,369 words in the English language version. Besides the English version, there is an official Hindi translation.

Download or Read Constitution of India

Constitution of India Official websites

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA IN ENGLISH

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA IN HINDI

INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION FOR RAS PRE EXAM 2012

INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION
2010
Q. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to
the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees. (b) State Finance Commission.
(c) Finance Ministry of that State. (d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that States.
Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the
following:
1. The Right to Development. 2. The Right to Expression.
3. The Right to Recreation.
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it
seems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be field with a District
Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.
Q. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the Finance Commission to
be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister
Q. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget
to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue (b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services (d) Department of Expenditure
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy.
Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is / are fulfilled by the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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2
Q. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or
fact.
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 (d) 1 and 2
Q. With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre – litigation stage and not those
matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalats consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other
person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
2009
Q. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the
recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory
jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi
Q. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies
against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

3
Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting
members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of
Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen
percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
(a) 90
th
(b) 91
st

(c) 92
nd
(d) 93
rd
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal
Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15
th
August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on
Biosafety?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
Q. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests (d) Minister of Science and Technology
Q. under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office (b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Q. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned
Movement for some period?
(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(c) Giani Zail Singh (d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Q. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on
the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the
Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

4
2008
Q. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 22 (d) 24
Q. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union
Territories not included)?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Q. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
(a) Guntur (b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore (d) Warangal
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
A. Nagender Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A.N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R.K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
D.Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Q. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Kangra (b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh (d) Bhilwara
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation
(PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four language were added
to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their
number to 22?
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

5
Q. Consider the following statements:
The constitution of India provides that
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by
direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State
if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other
drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third (b) Fifth
(c) Seventh (d) Ninth
Q. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union
Ministries?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
2007
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the
Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of Financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two
months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both
Houses of Parliament.
2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of
India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of
Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of
members of the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of
that State, respectively?
(a) 91
st
(b) 93
rd
(c) 95
th
(d) 97
th ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

6
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts in appointed by the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya
Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Who was the speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukam Singh (b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) U.N. Dhebar
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T.S. Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) K.C. Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A.M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R.C. Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as
full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive
complaints Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief
Justice and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition
before a 1
st
Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

7
Q. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V.P. Singh 2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y.B. Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible
both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
the Ministers of the Union Government.
2006
Q. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both
men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the
Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Q. What does the 104
th
Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational
institutions
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.
Q. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision
under an Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) University Grants Commission (b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission (d) Central Vigilance Commission
Q. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the
year 1946?
(a) Defence (b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
(c) Food and Agriculture (d) None ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

8
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless ha has for at
least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years are group by the State was made a
Fundamental Right by the 76
th
Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42
nd
Amendment, 1976 of the Constitution
of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
Q. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to
the Indian Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati
2005
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction
is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Court are appointed by the concerned
Chief Justice and the Administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the
Centre by the 44
th
Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

9
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of
Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (The Union
and the State) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the
Constitution (73
rd
Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243
envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for
every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in All.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh /& Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the
Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Q. The Constitution (98
th
Amendment) Act is related to:
(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States
2004
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of
seven years’ standing or more, on an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before
it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

10
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is
only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of
the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of
dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until
‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been
laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being
granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of non-confidence
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone (b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament (d) Rajya Sabha alone
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Q. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office
of the President and the Vice-President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and
individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

11
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National
Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Q. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be
enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making
changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Q. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sec, place or birth
or any of them
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the
law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of
India
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in
matters relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State
Q. Which article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years
shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
Q. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following
can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Q. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram (b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukam Singh ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

12
Q. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 (b) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order or precedence in
the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India –
Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of Supreme Court –
Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha –
Members of Parliament
Q. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public
Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of
parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2003
Q. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment (b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment (d) Forty Second Amendment
Q. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Rajagopalachari
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking
Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

13
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the
ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian
community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to the Rajya Sabha
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Q. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(c) Madras (d) Orissa
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the
Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election
Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143
(c) Article 144 (d) Article 145
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee
on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees,
Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister (b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the
duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal
disturbance’?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

14
Q. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Item in the India Constitution) List II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater 4. United Kingdom
powers to the Union 5. United States of America
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 5 1 2
Q. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament
separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill (b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Q. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in
accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q. Consider the following statements:
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
State Population

Number of Elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total Number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

15
Q. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of
Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6
th
and 22
nd
(b) 13
th
and 38
th

(c) 7
th
and 31
st
(d) 11
th
and 42
nd

Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and
specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
2002
Q. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general
category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
(a) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,500 (b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 2,500
(c) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 7,500
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article of Indian Constitution) List II (Provisions)
A. Article 16(2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his
property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29(2) 2. No person can be discriminated against
in the matter of public appointment on the
ground of race, religion or caste.
C. Article 30(1) 3. All minorities whether based on religion
or language shall have the fundamental right
to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
D. Article 31(1) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into
any educational institution maintained by
the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds
of religion, race, caste, language or any of
them.
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Q. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India (d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution
is to establish
(a) political democracy (b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy (d) social and economic democracy
Q. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in
session.
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years. ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

16
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Minister
of all the States.
Q. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20 (b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18 (d) Article 13 to Article 17
Q. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President
to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39
th
(b) 40
th

(c) 42
nd
(d) 44
th
Q. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the
promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 5 1 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 4 1
Q. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality (d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Q. Consider the following statements with reference in India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but
receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the
Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner &
on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his
office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Q. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by
the
(a) President of India (b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (d) Ministry of Transport
Q. Which of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of
the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission (b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Public Accounts Committee ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

17
2001
Q. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the
Constitution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised
by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 , 2, 3 and 4
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article of the List II (Content)
Constitution)
A. Article 54 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council
of Minister
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council
of Minister of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 3
Q. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be endeavour of every state to
provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary state of
education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 A (d) Article 351
Q. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
(a) on the own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Q. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts.
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts.
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is
lodged in the exchequer. ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

18
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(c) By making the administration send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Amendments to List II (Contents)
the Constitution )
A. Constitution (sixty-ninth 1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
Amendment) Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (Seventy- 2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in
fifth Amendment) Act. 1994 Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth 3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or
Amendment) Act. 2000 at other local levels
D. The Constitution (Eighty- 4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth
third Amendment) Act. 2000 Finance Commission
5. According the status of National Capital
Territory to Delhi
A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 5 1 3 4
(d) 1 5 4 2
2000
Q. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his
nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voter’s List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

19
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Local bodies) List II (States as in 1999)
A. Zilla Parishads at the subdivisions 1. Andhra Pradesh
level
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats 4. Meghalaya
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56
th
Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Q. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States (b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) without the consent of any State
Q. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under-employed men and
women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work
during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal
protection without discrimination.
Q. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.
This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum (b) crossing the floor
(c) interpolation (d) yielding the floor
Q. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Q. Consider the following functionaries
1. Cabinet Secretary 2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers 4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

20
Q. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Q. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok
Sabha is:
(a) Bihar (b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and sent it for
consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
1999
Q. The Constitution of India recognises
(a) only religious minorities (b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities (d) religious, linguistic & ethnic minorities
Q. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating
from the past. Which one of the following in not one such provision?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary
education and social forestry among others
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the Panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and
accountability
Q. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature 4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Q. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the
Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996.
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag for the Constitution of India
shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six
years from the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election
to the Lok-Sabha.
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

21
Q. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to:
(a) Freedom of trade and profession (b) Equality before the Law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty (d) Freedom of religion
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of
India:
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
1998
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
Q. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that
India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature (d) the system of judicial review
1997
Q. In which one of the following countries will the non-confidence motion to bring down the
government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find
simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Italy (d) Portugal
Q. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73
rd
Constitutional amendment in the
area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all
levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj
institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have
more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or
dissolved by the State Government
Q. Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the
maintenance of the one’s parent mandatory?
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

22
Q. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where
(a) there are no reserved constituencies
(b) a two-party system had developed
(c) the first-past-post system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
Q. State funding of elections takes place in
(a) U.S.A. and Canada (b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy (d) Germany and Austria
Q. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) the United Kingdom (b) Australia
(c) the United States (d) Canada
Q. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the
Prime Minister
Q. Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of
seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
Amendment.
Q. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a
State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient
obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members
of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population
as ascertained by the
(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census (d) 1961 Census
Q. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 alone (d) 2 alone
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the given below the lists:
List I (Functionaries) List II (Oaths or affirmations)
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of Information
B. Judges of Supreme Court 2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
C. Members of Parliament 3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution
of India
D. Minister for the Union 4. Upholding the Constitution & the law
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

23
Q. In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament
filled on the basis of first-past-the post system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional
Representation system of elections?
(a) Germany (b) Italy
(c) France (d) Russia
Q. In the following quotation:
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens
JUSTICE, social, economic and political ; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief
faith and worship ; EQUALIY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all ;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation
In our Constituent Assembly that ‘X’ to hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution”.
‘X’ stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950 (b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949 (d) None of the above
Q. Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory
language about judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without warming the judiciary with
punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
Q. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
(a) the constitution of state level election commission
(b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections.
Q. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panch-sheel”?
(b) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
1996
Q. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats
reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that states will be
(a) 21 (b) 14
(c) 7 (d) 6
Q. The power of the Supreme Court in India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its:
(a) advisory jurisdiction (b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction (d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

24
Q. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate (b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge (d) chief justice of a small cause court
Q. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of
India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils (d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and state levels
Q. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violate of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) none is correct
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of
Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary
powers vested with the President of India
Q. Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
Q. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar
1995
Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process
in India?
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is
issued by the Election Commission.
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification
in respect of it are done by Election Commission ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

25
Q. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra legal device(s) for securing
cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The National Development Council 2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils 4. The Inter-State Council
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
Q. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the state legislature
Q. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even
though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office of a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be
deduced from this ?
1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither
Q. Prohibition of discrimination on groups of religion etc (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion (b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights (d) the Right to Equality
Q. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as
a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the
President
Q. Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief
Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala (b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa (d) Rajasthan and Karnataka ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com

26
Q. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal
system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Q. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election

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