INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION
2010
Q. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to
the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees. (b) State Finance Commission.
(c) Finance Ministry of that State. (d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that States.
Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the
following:
1. The Right to Development. 2. The Right to Expression.
3. The Right to Recreation.
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it
seems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be field with a District
Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.
Q. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the Finance Commission to
be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister
Q. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget
to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue (b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services (d) Department of Expenditure
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy.
Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is / are fulfilled by the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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2
Q. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or
fact.
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 (d) 1 and 2
Q. With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre – litigation stage and not those
matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalats consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other
person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
2009
Q. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the
recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory
jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi
Q. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies
against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting
members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of
Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen
percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
(a) 90
th
(b) 91
st
(c) 92
nd
(d) 93
rd
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal
Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15
th
August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on
Biosafety?
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
Q. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests (d) Minister of Science and Technology
Q. under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office (b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Q. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned
Movement for some period?
(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(c) Giani Zail Singh (d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Q. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on
the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the
Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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2008
Q. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 22 (d) 24
Q. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union
Territories not included)?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Q. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
(a) Guntur (b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore (d) Warangal
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
A. Nagender Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A.N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R.K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
D.Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Q. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Kangra (b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh (d) Bhilwara
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation
(PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four language were added
to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their
number to 22?
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Consider the following statements:
The constitution of India provides that
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by
direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State
if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other
drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third (b) Fifth
(c) Seventh (d) Ninth
Q. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union
Ministries?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
2007
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the
Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of Financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two
months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both
Houses of Parliament.
2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of
India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of
Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of
members of the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of
that State, respectively?
(a) 91
st
(b) 93
rd
(c) 95
th
(d) 97
th ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts in appointed by the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya
Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Who was the speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukam Singh (b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) U.N. Dhebar
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T.S. Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) K.C. Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A.M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R.C. Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as
full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive
complaints Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief
Justice and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition
before a 1
st
Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V.P. Singh 2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y.B. Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible
both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
the Ministers of the Union Government.
2006
Q. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both
men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the
Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Q. What does the 104
th
Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational
institutions
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.
Q. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision
under an Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) University Grants Commission (b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission (d) Central Vigilance Commission
Q. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the
year 1946?
(a) Defence (b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
(c) Food and Agriculture (d) None ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless ha has for at
least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years are group by the State was made a
Fundamental Right by the 76
th
Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42
nd
Amendment, 1976 of the Constitution
of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
Q. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to
the Indian Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati
2005
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction
is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Court are appointed by the concerned
Chief Justice and the Administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the
Centre by the 44
th
Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of
Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (The Union
and the State) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the
Constitution (73
rd
Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243
envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for
every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in All.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh /& Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the
Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Q. The Constitution (98
th
Amendment) Act is related to:
(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States
2004
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of
seven years’ standing or more, on an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before
it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
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Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is
only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of
the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of
dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until
‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been
laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being
granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of non-confidence
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone (b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament (d) Rajya Sabha alone
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Q. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office
of the President and the Vice-President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and
individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
11
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National
Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Q. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be
enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making
changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Q. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sec, place or birth
or any of them
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the
law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of
India
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in
matters relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State
Q. Which article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years
shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
Q. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following
can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Q. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram (b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukam Singh ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
12
Q. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 (b) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order or precedence in
the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India –
Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of Supreme Court –
Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha –
Members of Parliament
Q. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public
Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of
parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2003
Q. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment (b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment (d) Forty Second Amendment
Q. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Rajagopalachari
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking
Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
13
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the
ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian
community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to the Rajya Sabha
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Q. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(c) Madras (d) Orissa
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the
Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election
Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143
(c) Article 144 (d) Article 145
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee
on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees,
Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister (b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the
duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal
disturbance’?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
14
Q. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Item in the India Constitution) List II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater 4. United Kingdom
powers to the Union 5. United States of America
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 5 1 2
Q. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament
separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill (b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Q. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in
accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q. Consider the following statements:
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
State Population
Number of Elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total Number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
15
Q. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of
Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6
th
and 22
nd
(b) 13
th
and 38
th
(c) 7
th
and 31
st
(d) 11
th
and 42
nd
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and
specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
2002
Q. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general
category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
(a) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,500 (b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 2,500
(c) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 7,500
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article of Indian Constitution) List II (Provisions)
A. Article 16(2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his
property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29(2) 2. No person can be discriminated against
in the matter of public appointment on the
ground of race, religion or caste.
C. Article 30(1) 3. All minorities whether based on religion
or language shall have the fundamental right
to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
D. Article 31(1) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into
any educational institution maintained by
the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds
of religion, race, caste, language or any of
them.
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Q. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India (d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution
is to establish
(a) political democracy (b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy (d) social and economic democracy
Q. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in
session.
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years. ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
16
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Minister
of all the States.
Q. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20 (b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18 (d) Article 13 to Article 17
Q. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President
to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39
th
(b) 40
th
(c) 42
nd
(d) 44
th
Q. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the
promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 5 1 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 4 1
Q. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality (d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Q. Consider the following statements with reference in India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but
receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the
Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner &
on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his
office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Q. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by
the
(a) President of India (b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (d) Ministry of Transport
Q. Which of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of
the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission (b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Public Accounts Committee ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
17
2001
Q. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the
Constitution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised
by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 , 2, 3 and 4
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article of the List II (Content)
Constitution)
A. Article 54 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council
of Minister
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council
of Minister of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 3
Q. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be endeavour of every state to
provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary state of
education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 A (d) Article 351
Q. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
(a) on the own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Q. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts.
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts.
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is
lodged in the exchequer. ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
18
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(c) By making the administration send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Amendments to List II (Contents)
the Constitution )
A. Constitution (sixty-ninth 1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
Amendment) Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (Seventy- 2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in
fifth Amendment) Act. 1994 Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth 3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or
Amendment) Act. 2000 at other local levels
D. The Constitution (Eighty- 4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth
third Amendment) Act. 2000 Finance Commission
5. According the status of National Capital
Territory to Delhi
A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 5 1 3 4
(d) 1 5 4 2
2000
Q. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his
nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voter’s List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
19
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Local bodies) List II (States as in 1999)
A. Zilla Parishads at the subdivisions 1. Andhra Pradesh
level
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats 4. Meghalaya
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56
th
Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Q. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States (b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) without the consent of any State
Q. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under-employed men and
women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work
during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal
protection without discrimination.
Q. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.
This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum (b) crossing the floor
(c) interpolation (d) yielding the floor
Q. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Q. Consider the following functionaries
1. Cabinet Secretary 2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers 4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
20
Q. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Q. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok
Sabha is:
(a) Bihar (b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and sent it for
consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
1999
Q. The Constitution of India recognises
(a) only religious minorities (b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities (d) religious, linguistic & ethnic minorities
Q. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating
from the past. Which one of the following in not one such provision?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary
education and social forestry among others
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the Panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and
accountability
Q. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature 4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Q. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the
Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996.
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag for the Constitution of India
shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six
years from the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election
to the Lok-Sabha.
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
21
Q. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to:
(a) Freedom of trade and profession (b) Equality before the Law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty (d) Freedom of religion
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of
India:
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
1998
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
Q. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that
India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature (d) the system of judicial review
1997
Q. In which one of the following countries will the non-confidence motion to bring down the
government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find
simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Italy (d) Portugal
Q. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73
rd
Constitutional amendment in the
area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all
levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj
institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have
more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or
dissolved by the State Government
Q. Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the
maintenance of the one’s parent mandatory?
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
22
Q. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where
(a) there are no reserved constituencies
(b) a two-party system had developed
(c) the first-past-post system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
Q. State funding of elections takes place in
(a) U.S.A. and Canada (b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy (d) Germany and Austria
Q. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) the United Kingdom (b) Australia
(c) the United States (d) Canada
Q. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the
Prime Minister
Q. Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of
seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
Amendment.
Q. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a
State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient
obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members
of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population
as ascertained by the
(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census (d) 1961 Census
Q. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 alone (d) 2 alone
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the given below the lists:
List I (Functionaries) List II (Oaths or affirmations)
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of Information
B. Judges of Supreme Court 2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
C. Members of Parliament 3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution
of India
D. Minister for the Union 4. Upholding the Constitution & the law
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
23
Q. In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament
filled on the basis of first-past-the post system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional
Representation system of elections?
(a) Germany (b) Italy
(c) France (d) Russia
Q. In the following quotation:
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens
JUSTICE, social, economic and political ; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief
faith and worship ; EQUALIY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all ;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation
In our Constituent Assembly that ‘X’ to hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution”.
‘X’ stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950 (b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949 (d) None of the above
Q. Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory
language about judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without warming the judiciary with
punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
Q. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
(a) the constitution of state level election commission
(b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections.
Q. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panch-sheel”?
(b) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
1996
Q. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats
reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that states will be
(a) 21 (b) 14
(c) 7 (d) 6
Q. The power of the Supreme Court in India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its:
(a) advisory jurisdiction (b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction (d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
24
Q. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate (b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge (d) chief justice of a small cause court
Q. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of
India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils (d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and state levels
Q. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violate of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) none is correct
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of
Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary
powers vested with the President of India
Q. Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
Q. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar
1995
Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process
in India?
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is
issued by the Election Commission.
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification
in respect of it are done by Election Commission ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
25
Q. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra legal device(s) for securing
cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The National Development Council 2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils 4. The Inter-State Council
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
Q. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the state legislature
Q. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even
though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office of a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be
deduced from this ?
1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither
Q. Prohibition of discrimination on groups of religion etc (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion (b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights (d) the Right to Equality
Q. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as
a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the
President
Q. Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief
Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala (b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa (d) Rajasthan and Karnataka ©VISION IAS www.visioniasonline.com
26
Q. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal
system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Q. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
