IAS MAINS GK PAPERS ANALYSIS-HISTORY OF MODERN INDIA

HISTORY OF MODERN INDIA
REVOLT OF 1857
1.   ‘What began as a fight for religion ended as a war of independence, for there is not the
slightest doubt that the rebels wanted to get rid of the alien government and restore the old
order of which the king of Delhi was the rightful representative.’ Do you support this
viewpoint ?  (99/15)
2. What administrative changes were introduced in India after 1858? What were the
objectives of these changes?  (01/30)
SOCIO-RELIGIOUS REFORMATION MOVEMENT
1. Discuss the various aspects of social legislation introduced by the East India Company in
the first half of the nineteenth century. (95/15)
2. ‘Swami Vivekananda might well be called the father of Indian nationalism.’ Elucidate.        
                                                                                                                               (95/10)
3. The name of Raja Ram Mohan Roy stands foremost in the field of religious and social
reforms. Elucidate.   (97/10)
8. Assess the contributions of Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar to the making of modern India.
                                                                                                                                (99/10)
5. In what way did Ramakrishna infuse a new vigour and dynamism into Hinduism?
                                                                                                                               (99/10)
6. Characterise the main features of Indian Renaissance. (06/15)
7.  What was the character of socio-religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they
contribute to the national awakening in India?  (07/30)
CONGRESS - MODERATES & EXTREMISTS
Split (Surat) - Reunion (Lucknow)
1. Trace the emergence of Indian nationalism till the foundation of the Indian National
Congress.   (95/15)
2. What was Tilak’s contribution towards shaping the course of the Nationalist movement in
India?   (96/10)
3. Examine the causes and nature of extremism in Indian politics in the early part of the
present century.                                                                                             (97/35)
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GENERAL STUDIES (MAINS) – Questions Pattern & Trends Analysis  2
4. How did economic nationalism mirror the work of the early nationalist leadership in India?
                         (98/35)
5. Why did the moderates lose appeal with the Indians and failed to elicit desired response
from the British?  (98/15)
6. Discuss the main objectives of the Indian national movement up to 1905. What were its
basic weaknesses during this period?  (0130)
7. Bring out the Ideological basis of the Moderate-Extremist divide in the Indian National
Congress.   (03/15)
PARTITION OF BENGAL
Swadeshi Movement & Rise of Revolutionary Terrorism
1. Bengal was partitioned in 1905 not for administrative reasons but for political purposes.
Elucidate.                                                                                                             (96/15)      
2. How did the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal influence the nationalist politics?   (98/10)
3. Trace the origin of the Swadeshi Movement. How did it involve the masses?     (00/30)
4. How did the terrorist movement gather strength in countries other than India?   (00/15)
5. Write short notes: Divide et impera.                                                                      (02/2)      
6. What led to the partition of Bengal in 1905?                                                        (04/15)
NATIONALISM DURING WORLD WAR- I
Gadar Party & Home Rule League
1. Write short notes: Ghadar Party                                                                     (01/2)
2. Trace the growth of the Indian Home Rule Movement in Britain.  (02/15)
M. K. GANDHI
South African experiment, Rowlatt Satyagraha & Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1. Discuss Mahatma Gandhi’s concept of ’Basic Education’. How far was it a departure from
conventional system of education?                                                                        (97/15)    
2. What do you know about Rowlatt Act?                                                                    (97/2)
3. The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhi’s movements was the rural India.’ Elucidate.   (03/15)
4. Do you think Mahatma Gandhi’s support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular
credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.                 (07, 15 )
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
1. Did Jawaharlal Nehru really ‘speak’ the ‘language’ of Gandhi? Locate the points of their
agreements and departures.  (98/35)
2. How did Nehru’s plan for modernization make rapid stride during the decade 1951-61?
                                                                                                                 (99/10) 3
3. Was Jawaharlal Nehru justified in adopting the principle of non-alignment as the cornerstone of India’s foreign policy?  (00/10)
4. Regardless of distance in time, there were lots  of similarities between Lord Curzon and
Jawahar Lal Nehru. Discuss.  (06/30)
NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
Khilafat, Swarajists and no-changers and growth of revolutionary terrorism
1.    What were the reasons that changed Gandhiji’s attitude of responsive cooperation to noncooperation in 1920? What were its consequences? (96/35)
2. Trace the formation of the Swaraj Party. What were its demands? (99/15)
3. Discuss the aims and objects of the Khilafat Movement. To what extent was it successful?
                                                                                                                 (01/15)
4. Form a critical assessment of the Non-Cooperation Movement. (04/30)
5. The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the
constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.                      
                                                                                                                 (07/30)
6. Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the
cause of India’s struggle for independence.   (07/15)
7. “Non-Cooperation Movement gave new direction and energy to the National Movement.”
Explain.   (08/15)
CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
Round Table Conference, Gandhi- Irwin Pact, Karachi Congress, MacDonald Award & Poona Pact
1. In what way did the Civil Disobedience Movement affect the different provinces of India ?
How did it foster peasant movement in India?   (95/30)
2. What was the Macdonald Award? How was it modified?  (96/15)
3. What were the salient features of Gandhi-Irwin Pact?  (97/15)
4. Write short notes: Communal Award                                                              (98/2)
5. Why did Gandhi launch the Salt Satyagraha in 1930 and with what results? (01/15)
6. Write short notes: Dandi March                                                                      (02/2)
THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT, 1935 - The Congress Ministers - IInd World War
1. How did the Government of India Act, 1935 mark a point of no return in the history of
constitutional development in India?                                                             (06/30) 4
PROPOSALS TOWARDS INDEPENDENCE
The August Offer / Cripps Mission / Raja Ji Formula / Desai Liaqat formula / Wavell Plan /
Cabinet Mission Plan / Dickie Bird Plan / Mountbatten Plan
1. Short Notes on: August Offer, 1940  (96/2)
2. What do you know about August Declaration, 1917. (97/2)
3. Assess the role of C. Rajagopalachari during the pre-partition years of Indian public life.
   (98/10)
4. What were the proposals of the Cabinet Mission? Analyze the reactions of the Congress
and the League to the proposals.  (99/35)
5. What was Mountbatten Plan? Discuss the reactions of Gandhi and Azad to the Plan.  
                                                                                                                               (00/30)
6. Why did Jinnah reject the C. R. Formula? (02/30)
7. Review the ‘Dickie Bird Plan.  (02/15)
QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT - INA & RIN MUTINY
1. Trace the origins of the R.I.N. Mutiny and evaluate its impact on the political situation in
India.  (98/15)
2. Evaluate the attitudes of different political parties /towards Quit India Movement.(02/15)
3. Evaluate Subhas Chandra Bose’s contribution to India’s freedom. (05/15)
4.    Critically assess Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru’s views on Indian Nationalism. (06/15)
COMMUNALISM/PARTITION OF INDIA
1. Do you think that the Partition of India was inevitable? Discuss the attitudes of Mahatma
Gandhi, Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad towards the crucial question of Partition.  
                                                                                                                               (95/35)
2. What were the circumstances that led to the partition of India in 1947? (97/30)
3. How did Communalism manifest in Indian political scene? Explain the background of the
passing of the momentous Pakistan Resolution.                                            (99/35)
4. Why and how did the Congress come to accept the partition of the country?(05/15)
ACTS DURING BRITISH RAJ / COMMISSION
1. Write short notes: Ilbert Bill, Sarda Act, Education Despatch of 1854.  (99/2)
2. “The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every
revision of the Indian electoral system.” Comment.  (03/30)
3. Write about W. W. Hunter,                                                                              (93/2)
4. “In the Montagu-Chelmsford Report communal representation and reservations were not
only retained but considerably extended.” Comment.  (93/15)
5. What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?   5
                         (07/15)
6. Write about Ilbert Bill in 20 words.                                                                  (08/2)
PRINCELY STATES AND INTEGRATION
1. Write short notes: Butler Committee Report (96/2)
2. How did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel succeed in avoiding the evil consequences of the
doctrine of lapse of paramountcy and in integrating Indian States? (97/35)
3. What was the Butler Committee Report? Discuss the reactions on the Report in India.              
                                                                                                                               (02/30)
4. Write short notes: Chamber of Princes  (02/2)
5. Discuss the problems that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian
Union. How were these problems tackled ? (03/30)
6. Examine the policy of Subordinate Union towards Princely States. Account for the shift from
the policy of Subordinate Isolation.  (05/30)
IMPACT OF BRITISH RULE ON INDIAN ECONOMY
1. What do you understand about ‘Drain of wealth during British rule? Examine its effects on
Indian economy.  (97/10)
2. How did the policy of free trade hurt Indian textile industry and crafts in the latter half of the
19th century ?  (98/15)
3. “The emergence of new social classes in British India was the direct consequence of the
establishment of new social economy, new state system, administrative machinery and
Western education.” Discuss                                                                         (08/15)
4.     “British vision of India had no single coherent set of ideas. On the contrary, the ideas were
       shot through with contradictions and inconsistencies.” Discuss.                     (08/15)
MOVEMENTS
     State people’s movement, Trade Union Movement, Peasant movement, Tribal movement,
Movement against untouchability and caste system, Movement for the upliftment of women
1. What was the role of the states’ people’s movement in the integration of Indian states?
                                                                                                                              (96/10)
2. What was the significance of the Prajamandal movements in the Indian States in the
decade preceding India’s independence ? (98/10)
3. How did the movement for the liberation of women receive a great stimulus from the rise
and growth of the nationalist movement in India ? (01/15)
4. Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century.    
                                                                                                                               (03/15)
5. What was the attitude of Indian Industrialists towards the Indian National Congress in the
pre-independent era?  (06/15)
6. Write about Vaikam Satyagraha,  (08/2) 6
GROWTH / DEVELOPMENT
Civil Services, Judicial System, Local Self Government, Modern Education, Indian Press,
Nationalistic foreign policy & Taxes
1. Discuss the British policy towards Tibet from the end of the nineteenth century to the
Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon.                                                                            (94/15)
2. When was the system of open competitive examination in the Indian Civil Service
introduced? Analyze the growth of the Indian Civil  Service till the passing of the
Government of India Act, 1919.  (95/15)
3. Assess the growth and development of Technical Education during the British rule.
                                                                                                                               (95/10)
4. Discuss the major regulations enacted by the British rulers to curb the freedom of Press in
India.  (04/30)
5. Discuss the main findings of the Hartog Committee (1929). (04/15)
6. What in your opinion were the positive steps taken by the British to modernise India?          
                                                                                                                               (05/30)
7. Write about Chouth and Sardeshmukhi.                                                         (08/2)

Rajasthan Road Map AND Map of India

Rajasthan Road Map | Rajasthan Highways Map district wise

Rajasthan Road Map | Rajasthan Highways Map district wise

AND- States and Capital

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

Rivers in India

Rivers in India: rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people. The river systems provide irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity, and the livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country. Rivers can be divided into Four Major River systems in India.
Ganges/Ganga River System: The major river Ganges,and its tributaries like Yamuna, Son, and Gandak. The main river, the holy Ganges forms by the joining of the Alaknanda River and Bhagirathi River at Devprayag. The Bhagirathi, which is considered the Ganges' true source, starts from Gomukh . Known as the Padma River in Bangladesh, it joins the Jamuna River/Brahmputra. The Brahmaputra is longer, but most of its course is not in India.The Ganges Brahmaputra river system forms the largest delta in the world known as the Sunderbans before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Indus/Sindhu River System: The Indus River originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range near Lake Mansarovar in Tibet. Although most of the river's course runs through neighbouring Pakistan, a portion of it does run through Indian territory, as do parts of the courses of its five major tributaries - Beas, Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi and Sutlej.

Brahmaputra River System: Brahmaputra originates in Tibet, near the sources of the Indus and the Sutlej. It is about 2,900 kilometres long. In Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Zangbo River, or Tsangpo, it flows east, parallel to the Himalayas. Reaching Namjagbarwa, it turns south and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh, where is it known as Dihang. In Assam it is called the Brahmaputra. Just before entering Bangladesh it splits into two distributaries, the larger of which is called the Jamuna River.
Peninsular/Prayaydwipiya River System: The main water divide in peninsular rivers is formed by the Western Ghats, which run from north to south close to the western coast. Most of the major rivers of the peninsula such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers make delta at their mouth. The Narmada and Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow west and make esturies.

MODEL TEST PAPERS FOR RAS MAINS GK&GS

 History of Modern India and Indian Culture        
+ Current Affairs & General Awareness                                        1. Critically analyze any  two of the following statements with
reference to the context in which they were made ( in about 150
words each )                                                                    2x 15=30
a). “ Our system acts very much like a sponge , drawing up all
the good things from the banks of the Ganges , and squeezing
them down on the banks of the Thames”.
b). “ At the time many British people preferred to see the events
largely as a military mutiny understandably as any  wider
interpretation would have cast doubts on the nature of the Raj”.  
c). “Our time in India is limited and our power to control events
almost gone. We have only prestige and previous momentum to
trade and they will not last long”  
2. Write about the following (in about 50 words each)  
                                                                                       8 x5= 40                                
a) Desai Liyakat Pact  
b) Dyarchy at Center
c) Kalhana
d) Doctrine of lapse
e) Irwin Bill
f) Dharshana Satyagraha  
g) Majm – ul - Baharain
      h).  Janapada Sampada
3. Answer any  two of the following questions (in about 150
words each)                                                                      15×2=30                  
a). “ The 11
th
 Five Year Plan recognizes that adequate , cost
effective and quality infrastructure is a pre requisite for
sustaining the growth momentum” Elucidate.  
b). Discuss India’s achievement in space programme during
2009-2010.
c). Analyze the implications of Nuclear Liability bill, 2010.  
4. Answer any  two of the following questions (in about 150
words each)                                                                      15×2=30                  
a). Until a few years ago news media was referred as the fourth
estate but today the media scene , nevertheless has changed .
Discuss.  
b). The Indian Telecom sector is ringing into a new era.
Comment.
c). At what extent right to free and compulsory education is
feasible in India?  ©VISION IAS                                                                       www.visioniasonline.com 3
5. Answer any  two of the following questions (in about 150
words each)                                                                      15×2=30                                        
a).  Why did Congress accepted partition ?  
b). “Caste movement was a product of the nationalistic
democratic awakening during British period”. Elucidate.
c). What was the struggle truce struggle policy of Mahatma
Gandhi. Bring out its various aspects.  
6. Comment on any two of the following in about 100 words.
                                                                              10×2=20    
a).  Oil Spill Crisis in the Gulf of Mexico.
b). Outcome of  the 16th SAARC summits.
c). Good Governance is a key to achieving inclusive growth.  
7. Answer any  one of the following questions (in about 250
words each)                                                                              30
a). Was the withdrawal of  Non Cooperation Movement
symbolized the failure of the movement ? Discuss.    
b). What were the major causes of all the civil rebellions, which
run like a thread through the first 100 yrs of British rule.
8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each)  
                                                                                       2 x10= 20                              
a). Raidas
b). Amaravati Art
c). Bhaskar I
d). Guruvayur Satyagrha
e). Futuhat i Alamgiri
f). Allasi Peddana
g). Patanjali
h). B P Wadia
i). Tibbi-i-Sikandari
j). Dadu Dayal    
9. Answer any  one of the following questions (in about 200
words each)                                                                1 x20= 20                  
a). “ Infrastructure Assets are the physical structure & networks
used to provide essential services to a society.” In this regard
discuss health infrastructure in Rural India.    
b). India has great challenge to maintain internal security. Give
some regional basis remedial features. ©VISION IAS                                                                       www.visioniasonline.com 4
10. Answer any three of the following in about 100 words.
                                                                              10×3=30    
a).  Analyze India’s achievement in information technology (IT)
sector during 2009-10.
b). Give some preventive measures to control drug addiction and
abuse in India.
(c) What are the objectives of JNNRUM mission?
(d).Community Radio can play a very importance role in
bringing about social change. Discuss the importance of
community radio for rural development.
11. Write about the following (in about 20 words   each)      
                                                                                         10X2=20                                
   (a) ULIPs
   (b) Jarawa Tribe
   (c) NEERI
   (d) Genome project
   (e) Operation Green Hunt
   (f) M. M. Punchi Report
   (g) Cloud Computing
   (h) Narco analysis test
   (i) Copyright Amendment Act, 2010
   (j) Computer Emergency Response Team

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

Highest Rainfall in India - Mawsynram, Meghalaya

Highest Rainfall in India: Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya state in north-eastern India, 56 kilometers from Shillong. It is reportedly the wettest place on Earth, with an annual rainfall of 11,872 millimetres (467.4 in). According to the Guinness Book of World Records Mawsynram received 26,000 millimetres (1,000 in) of rainfall in 1985. Mawsynram, located about 15 km north-west of Cherrapunji in the state of Meghalaya (India) appears to be the wettest place in the world or the place with the highest average annual rainfall
Three reasons for high rainfall at Mawsynram:
1. The warm moist winds of the northward-moving air from the Bay of Bengal during the monsoon, which cover an extensive area but are forced to converge into the narrower zone over the Khasi Hills, thus concentrating their moisture.
2. The alignment of the Khasi Hills (east to west) places them directly in the path of the airflow from the Bay of Bengal, producing a significant uplift (plus cooling, further condensation and thus more rain).
3. Finally, uplift over the Khasi Hills is virtually continuous in the monsoon period because the lifted air is constantly being pulled up by vigorous winds in the upper atmosphere, hence the rainfall is more or less continuous.

GEOGRAPHY

Ergograph and Its uses

Ergograph: An ergograph is a graph that shows a relation between human activities, or agricultural/climate factors, and a seasonal year. The name was coined by Dr. Arthur Geddes of the University of Edinburgh. It can either be shown as rectangular graph, either a line graph or a bar graph.

This graph of the climate of Weymouth and the Isle of Portland over the cycle of the year is a cartesian form ergograph. In cartesian form, the X axis is marked for the months of the year, and the Y axis is marked with the scale(s) of the activity/activities. For example, in the erograph to the right, the Y axis is marked with both temperature and rainfall/sunshine scales.

Question asked in RAS Pre Exam 2008 - Geography

Ergograph relates to (A) Relative humidity and rainfall
(B) Temperature and rainfall
(C) Climate and growing season of crops
(D) Rainfall and winds

Answer: C 

INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION FOR RAS PRE EXAM 2012

INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION                                                                                                    
2010
Q. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to
the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats in that particular State?
 (a) District Planning Committees.   (b) State Finance Commission.
 (c) Finance Ministry of that State.   (d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that States.
Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the
following:
 1. The Right to Development.   2. The Right to Expression.
 3. The Right to Recreation.
 Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
 (a) 1 only      (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only     (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
 (a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it
                  seems fit.
 (b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
 (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
 (d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be field with a District
Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.
Q. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the Finance Commission to
be laid before each House of Parliament?
 (a) The President of India    (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
 (c) The Prime Minister of India   (d) The Union Finance Minister
Q. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget
to the Parliament?
 (a) Department of Revenue   (b) Department of Economic Affairs
 (c) Department of Financial Services  (d) Department of Expenditure
Q.   With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
 1. Fundamental Rights.
 2. Fundamental Duties.
 3. Directive Principles of State Policy.
Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is / are fulfilled by the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
 (a) 1 only      (b) 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only     (d) 1, 2 and 3
VISION IAS
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2
Q.   Consider the following statements:
 The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or
        fact.
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only      (b) 2 only
 (c) 3       (d) 1 and 2
Q.    With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre – litigation stage and not those
matters pending before any court.
 (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
 (c) Every Lok Adalats consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other
person.
 (d) None of the statements given above is correct.
2009
Q. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
 (a) 1 month     (b) 3 months
 (c) 6 months     (d) 1 year
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh
 2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the
recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
 2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory
jurisdiction at the State level.
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
 (a) Calcutta     (b) Madras
 (c) Bombay     (d) Delhi
Q. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
 1. An award made by Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies
against thereto before any court.
 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
3
Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
 1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting
members of Lok Sabha only.
 2. The Union Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of
Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen
percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
 (a) 90
th
      (b) 91
st
 
 (c) 92
nd
     (d) 93
rd
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal
Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15
th
 August 1947 was 18.
 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on
Biosafety?
 (a) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
 (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
Q. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
 (a) Prime Minister    (b) Minister of Water Resources
 (c) Minister of Environment and Forests (d) Minister of Science and Technology
Q. under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
 (a) Prime Minister’s Office   (b) Cabinet Secretariat
 (c) Ministry of Power    (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Q. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned
Movement for some period?
 (a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan  (b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
 (c) Giani Zail Singh    (d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Q. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:
 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on
the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the
Prime Minister.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
4
2008
Q. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?
 (a) 16      (b) 18
 (c) 22      (d) 24
Q. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction  over more than one State (Union
Territories not included)?
 (a) 2      (b) 3
 (c) 4      (d) 5
Q. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah   2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy   4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4    (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only    (d) 3 and 4 only
Q. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
 (a) Guntur     (b) Kurnool
 (c) Nellore     (d) Warangal
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List-I (Person)    List-II (Position)
 A. Nagender Singh    1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
 B. A.N. Ray     2. President, International Court of Justice
 C. R.K. Trivedi    3. Chief Justice of India
 D.Ashok Desai    4. Attorney General of India
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 1  2  3  4
 (b) 2  3  1  4
 (c) 1  3  2  4
 (d) 2  4  1  3
Q. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?
 (a) Kangra     (b) Ladakh
 (c) Kachchh     (d) Bhilwara
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one  of the progenitors of public interest litigation
(PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four language were added
to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their
number to 22?
 (a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
 (b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
 (c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
 (d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
5
Q. Consider the following statements:
 The constitution of India provides that
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by
direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State
if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other
drugs which are injurious to health
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2 only    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
 (a) Third     (b) Fifth
 (c) Seventh     (d) Ninth
Q. Department of Border Management is a Department  of which one of the following Union
Ministries?
 (a) Ministry of Defence
 (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
 (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
 (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
2007
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the
Constitution of India:
 1. A proclamation of Financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two
months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both
Houses of Parliament.
 2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of
India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of
Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of
members of the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of
that State, respectively?
 (a) 91
st
      (b) 93
rd
 (c) 95
th
      (d) 97
th ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
6
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts in appointed by the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha.
 2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya
Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Who was the speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
 (a) Hukam Singh    (b) G.V. Mavalankar
 (c) K.M. Munshi    (d) U.N. Dhebar
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
 2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
 3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 3 only
 (c) 1 only     (d) 1 and 3
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
 (a) T.S. Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
 (b) K.C. Pant   : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
 (c) A.M. Khusro  :         Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
 (d) R.C. Lahoti  : Former Chief Justice of India
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
 2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as
full States of the Indian Union?
 (a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
 (b) Nagaland – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
 (c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
 (d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive
complaints Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief
Justice and Judges.
 2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition
before a 1
st
 Class Judicial Magistrate.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
7
Q. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
 1. V.P. Singh     2. R. Venkataraman
 3. Y.B. Chavan    4. Pranab Mukherjee
 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
 (c) 2 and 4 only    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible
   both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
   the Ministers of the Union Government.
2006
Q. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
 (a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
 (b) Agriculture
 (c) Fisheries
 (d) Public health
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both
men and women.
 2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the
Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
 2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
 Which of the statements given is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Q. What does the 104
th
 Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
 (a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
 (b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
 (c) Providing quota to socially and educationally  backward classes in private educational
institutions
 (d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.
Q. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision
under an Article of the Constitution of India?
 (a) University Grants Commission  (b) National Human Rights Commission
 (c) Election Commission   (d) Central Vigilance Commission
Q. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the
year 1946?
 (a) Defence     (b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
 (c) Food and Agriculture   (d) None ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
8
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
 2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless ha has for at
least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
 (a) States Reorganization Act  : Andhra Pradesh
 (b) Treaty of Yandabu   : Assam
 (c) State of Bilaspur   : Himachal Pradesh
 (d) Year 1966    : Gujarat becomes a State
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years are group by the State was made a
Fundamental Right by the 76
th
 Amendment to the Constitution of India.
 2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
 3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42
nd
 Amendment, 1976 of the Constitution
of India.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3     (b) 1 and 2, only
 (c) 2 and 3, only    (d) 1 and 3, only
Q. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to
the Indian Judicial System?
 (a) M. Hidayatullah    (b) A.M. Ahmadi
 (c) A.S. Anand    (d) P.N. Bhagwati
2005
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. There are 25 High Courts in India
 2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 2 and 3     (b) 1 and 2
 (c) 1, 2 and 3     (d) 3 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction
is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
 2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Court are appointed by the concerned
Chief Justice and the Administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
 2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
 3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution  of India by the Congress Government at the
Centre by the 44
th
 Constitutional Amendment.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 2 only     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
9
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of
Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
 2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (The Union
and the State) but a single citizenship.
 3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3     (b) 1 and 3
 (c) 3 only     (d) 1 only
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the
Constitution (73
rd
 Amendment) Act, 1992.
 2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243
envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for
every State.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (d) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Consider the following:
 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in All.
 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh /& Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the
Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 only
 (c) 3 only     (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Who among the following was the Chairman of the  Union Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
 (a) B.R. Ambedkar    (b) J.B. Kripalani
 (c) Jawaharlal Nehru    (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Q. The Constitution (98
th
 Amendment) Act is related to:
 (a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
 (b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
 (c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
 (d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States
2004
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
 2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
 3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of
seven years’ standing or more, on an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
 4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before
it is carried out.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2, 3 and 4
 (c) 3 and 4     (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
10
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is
only the President who can summon the House.
 2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of
the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of
dissolution is issued by the President.
 3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until
‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
 (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
 (b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been
laid down in the Rules
 (c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being
granted
 (d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of non-confidence
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly  describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
 (a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
 (b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
 (c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
 (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
 (a) Lok Sabha alone    (b) either House of Parliament
 (c) Joint Sitting of Parliament   (d) Rajya Sabha alone
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
 (a) Forests     : Concurrent List
 (b) Stock Exchanges    : Concurrent List
 (c) Post Office Savings Bank   : Union List
 (d) Public Health    : State List
Q. Consider the following tasks:
 1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
 2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office
of the President and the Vice-President.
 3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and
individuals contesting the election
 4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
 Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3     (b) 2, 3 and 4
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 4 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
11
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
 2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National
Development Council.
 3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 2 only     (d) 3 only
Q. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
 (a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both  the Houses of Parliament before it can be
enacted into law
 (b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
 (c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making
changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
 (d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Q. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List I      List II
 A. Article 14       1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on
     grounds only of religion, race, caste, sec, place or birth
     or any of them
 B. Article 15       2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the
     law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of
India
 C. Article 16       3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is
     forbidden
 D. Article 17       4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in
     matters relating to employment or appointment to any
     office under the State
Q. Which article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years
shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment?
 (a) Article 24     (b) Article 45
 (c) Article 330     (d) Article 368
Q. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following
can be its Chairman?
 (a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
 (b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
 (c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
 (d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Q. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
 (a) K.V.K. Sundaram    (b) G.S. Dhillon
 (c) Baliram Bhagat    (d) Hukam Singh ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
12
Q. Consider the following events:
 1. Fourth general elections in India
 2. Formation of Haryana State
 3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
 4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
 Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
 (a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3     (b) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
 (c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1     (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order or precedence in
the warrant of precedence?
 (a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
 (b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India –
Members of Parliament
 (c) Attorney General of India Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of Supreme Court –
Members of Parliament
 (d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha –
Members of Parliament
Q. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
 1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
 2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public
Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
 3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of
parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 3
2003
Q. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added  by
 (a) First Amendment    (b) Eighth Amendment
 (c) Ninth Amendment    (d) Forty Second Amendment
Q. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
 (a) Rajendra Prasad    (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
 (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel   (d) Rajagopalachari
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution.
 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
 3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking
Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
 Which of these statements is correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 3 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
13
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the
ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
making any changes (in the year 2002)?
 (a) Article 121     (b) Article 122
 (c) Article 123     (d) Article 124
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
 (b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian
community to the Rajya Sabha
 (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to the Rajya Sabha
 (d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Q. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
 (a) The President of India
 (b) The Chief Justice of India
 (c) The Parliament
 (d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands?
 (a) Andhra Pradesh    (b) Calcutta
 (c) Madras     (d) Orissa
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the
Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election
Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
 (a) Article 142     (b) Article 143
 (c) Article 144     (d) Article 145
Q. Consider the following statements:
 1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee
on Parliamentary Affairs.
 3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees,
Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
 Which of these statements are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
 (a) Deputy Prime Minister   (b) Former President
 (c) Governor of a State within his State (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the
duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal
disturbance’?
 (a) Article 215     (b) Article 275
 (c) Article 325     (d) Article 355 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
14
Q. Consider the following statements:
 In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
 1. levied and collected by the State Government.
 2. appropriated by the Union Government.
 Which of these statements is/are correct?
 (a) Only 1     (b) Only 2
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List I (Item in the India Constitution)      List II (Country from which it was derived)
 A. Directive Principles of State Policy  1. Australia
 B. Fundamental Rights    2. Canada
 C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations  3. Ireland
 D. India as a Union of States with greater  4. United Kingdom
      powers to the Union    5. United States of America
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 5  4  1  2
 (b) 3  5  2  1
 (c) 5  4  2  1
 (d) 3  5  1  2
Q. Which one of the following Bills must be passed  by each House of the Indian Parliament
separately, by special majority?
 (a) Ordinary Bill    (b) Money Bill
 (c) Finance Bill    (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Q. Consider the following statements:
 The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
 1. to allow the withdrawal of the money of the Consolidated Fund of India.
 2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
 3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
 4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in
accordance with the budgetary provisions.
 Which of these statements is/are correct?
 (a) Only 1     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 3 and 4     (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q. Consider the following statements:
 In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
 1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
    State Population
 
  Number of Elected MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
 Total Number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2     (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3     (d) Only 3 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
15
Q. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of
Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
 (a) 6
th
 and 22
nd
     (b) 13
th
 and 38
th
 
 (c) 7
th
 and 31
st
     (d) 11
th
 and 42
nd
 
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and
specifies their territories?
 (a) First     (b) Second
 (c) Third     (d) Fourth
2002
Q. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general
category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
 (a) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,500   (b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 2,500
 (c) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000   (d) Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 7,500
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List I (Article of Indian Constitution) List II (Provisions)
 A. Article 16(2)    1. No person shall be deprived of his
       property save by the authority of law
 B. Article 29(2)    2. No person can be discriminated against
       in the matter of public appointment on the
       ground of race, religion or caste.
 C. Article 30(1)    3. All minorities whether based on religion
       or language shall have the fundamental right
       to establish and administer educational
       institutions of their choice.
 D. Article 31(1)    4. No citizen shall be denied admission into
       any educational institution maintained by
       the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds
       of religion, race, caste, language or any of
       them.
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 2  4  3  1
 (b) 3  1  2  4
 (c) 2  1  3  4
 (d) 3  4  2  1
Q. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
 (a) Consolidated Fund of India  (b) Consolidated Fund of the State
 (c) Contingency Fund of India  (d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution
is to establish
 (a) political democracy   (b) social democracy
 (c) Gandhian democracy   (d) social and economic democracy
Q. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
 (b) President can make ordinance only when either  of the two Houses of Parliament is not in
session.
 (c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years. ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
16
 (d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Minister
of all the States.
Q. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
 (a) Article 16 to Article 20   (b) Article 15 to Article 19
 (c) Article 14 to Article 18   (d) Article 13 to Article 17
Q. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President
to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
 (a) 39
th
      (b) 40
th
 
 (c) 42
nd
     (d) 44
th
Q. The term of the Lok Sabha
 (a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
 (b) can be extended by six months at a time
 (c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
 (d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the
promotion of international peace and security?
 (a) 5 1      (b) 48 A
 (c) 43 A     (d) 4 1
Q. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution?
 (a) Right to freedom of religion  (b) Right to property
 (c) Right to equality    (d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Q. Consider the following statements with reference in India:
 1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but
receive unequal salaries.
 2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the
Supreme Court.
 3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner &
on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
 4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his
office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
 Which of these statements are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 2 and 3
 (c) 1 and 4     (d) 2 and 4
Q. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by
the
 (a) President of India    (b) Ministry of Railways
 (c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs  (d) Ministry of Transport
Q. Which of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of
the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
 (a) Finance Commission   (b) Inter-State Council
 (c) Union Ministry of Finance  (d) Public Accounts Committee ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
17
2001
Q. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the
Constitution must be amended?
 (a) First     (b) Second
 (c) Third     (d) Fifth
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
 1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political  parties.
 2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
 3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
 4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised
by the Election Commission.
 Which of these statements are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 4     (b) 1 and 3
 (c) 2 and 4     (d) 1 , 2, 3 and 4
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Article of the    List II (Content)
 Constitution)
 A. Article 54   1. Election of the President of India
 B. Article 75   2. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council
       of Minister
 C. Article 155   3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
 D. Article 164   4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council
      of Minister of a state
     5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 1  2  3  4
 (b) 1  2  4  5
 (c) 2  1  3  5
 (d) 2  1  4  3
Q. Which Article of the Constitution provides that  it shall be endeavour of every state to
provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary state of
education?
 (a) Article 349     (b) Article 350
 (c) Article 350 A    (d) Article 351
Q. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
 (a) on the own initiative
 (b) only if he seeks such advice
 (c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
 (d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Q. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India?
 (a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
 (b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts.
 (c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts.
 (d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is
lodged in the exchequer. ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
18
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly  describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
 (a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
 (b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
 (c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
 (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
 (a) Through Parliamentary Committees
 (b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
 (c) By making the administration send periodic reports
 (d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
 1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
 2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
 3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
 4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
 Which of these statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 4     (b) 2 and 4
 (c) 1 and 4     (d) 4 only
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List I (Amendments to   List II (Contents)
 the Constitution )
 A. Constitution (sixty-ninth  1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
Amendment) Act, 1991
 B. The Constitution (Seventy- 2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in
 fifth Amendment) Act. 1994   Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
 C. The Constitution (Eightieth 3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or
 Amendment) Act. 2000   at other local levels
 D. The Constitution (Eighty-  4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth
 third Amendment) Act. 2000    Finance Commission
      5. According the status of National Capital
       Territory to Delhi
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 5  1  4  2
 (b) 1  5  3  4
 (c) 5  1  3  4
 (d) 1  5  4  2
2000
Q. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his
nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
 (a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
 (b) he is a member of a political party
 (c) his name figures in the Voter’s List
 (d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
19
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
 List I (Local bodies)    List II (States as in 1999)
 A. Zilla Parishads at the subdivisions  1. Andhra Pradesh
 level
 B. Mandal Praja Parishad   2. Assam
 C. Tribal Councils    3. Mizoram
 D. Absence of Village Panchayats  4. Meghalaya
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 2  1  4  3
 (b) 1  2  4  3
 (c) 3  2  1  4
 (d) 2  1  3  4
Q. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
 (a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
 (b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
 (c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56
th
 Amendment of the Constitution of India
 (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Q. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
 (a) with the consent of all the States  (b) with the consent of the majority of States
 (c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) without the consent of any State
Q. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the
 (a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under-employed men and
women in rural area
 (b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work
during the lean agricultural season
 (c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
 (d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal
protection without discrimination.
Q. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.
This phenomenon is known as
 (a) decorum     (b) crossing the floor
 (c) interpolation    (d) yielding the floor
Q. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
 1. He is appointed by the President of India.
 2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
 3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
 4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
 Which of these statements are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 1 and 3
 (c) 2, 3 and 4     (d) 3 and 4
Q. Consider the following functionaries
 1. Cabinet Secretary    2. Chief Election Commissioner
 3. Union Cabinet Ministers   4. Chief Justice of India
 Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:
 (a) 3, 4, 2, 1     (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
 (c) 4, 3, 2, 1     (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
20
Q. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
 (a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
 (b) prepare the Annual Budget
 (c) advise the President on financial matters
 (d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Q. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok
Sabha is:
 (a) Bihar     (b) Gujarat
 (c) Uttar Pradesh    (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
 (a) A money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
 (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
 (c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and sent it for
consideration within 14 days
 (d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
1999
Q. The Constitution of India recognises
 (a) only religious minorities   (b) only linguistic minorities
 (c) religious and linguistic minorities  (d) religious, linguistic & ethnic minorities
Q. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating
from the past. Which one of the following in not one such provision?
 (a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary
education and social forestry among others
 (b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
 (c) A statutory representation for women in the Panchayats, upto a third of the strength
 (d) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and
accountability
Q. Consider the following statements:
 An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
 1. Lok Sabha     2. Rajya Sabha
 3. State Legislature    4. President
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 alone     (b) 1, 2 and 3
 (c) 2, 3 and 4     (d) 1 and 2
Q. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the
Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996.
 1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag for the Constitution of India
shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six
years from the date of conviction.
 2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election
to the Lok-Sabha.
 3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
 4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
 Which of the above statements are correct?
 (a) 2 and 3     (b) 1, 2 and 4
 (c) 1 and 3     (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
21
Q. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to:
 (a) Freedom of trade and profession  (b) Equality before the Law
 (c) Protection of life and personal liberty (d) Freedom of religion
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the  National Human Rights Commission of
India:
 1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
 2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
 3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
 4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
 Which of the above statements are correct?
 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4    (b) 2 and 4
 (c) 2 and 3     (d) 1 and 3
1998
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection Act?
 (a) Second Schedule    (b) Fifth Schedule
 (c) Eighth Schedule    (d) Tenth Schedule
Q. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that
India has
 (a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility
 (c) bicameral legislature   (d) the system of judicial review
1997
Q. In which one of the following countries will the non-confidence motion to bring down the
government passed by the legislature be valid only  when the legislature is able to find
simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?
 (a) France     (b) Germany
 (c) Italy     (d) Portugal
Q. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73
rd
 Constitutional amendment in the
area of Panchayati Raj?
 (a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all
levels
 (b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj
institutions
 (c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have
more than two children
 (d) The elections will be held in six months time  if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or
dissolved by the State Government
Q. Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the
maintenance of the one’s parent mandatory?
 (a) Kerala     (b) West Bengal
 (c) Maharashtra    (d) Himachal Pradesh ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
22
Q. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where
 (a) there are no reserved constituencies
 (b) a two-party system had developed
 (c) the first-past-post system prevails
 (d) there is a fusion of presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
Q. State funding of elections takes place in
 (a) U.S.A. and Canada   (b) Britain and Switzerland
 (c) France and Italy    (d) Germany and Austria
Q. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
 (a) the United Kingdom   (b) Australia
 (c) the United States    (d) Canada
Q. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
 (a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
 (b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
 (c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
 (d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the
Prime Minister
Q.        Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament
   and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of
   seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
   Amendment.
Q. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a
State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient
obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members
of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population
as ascertained by the
 (a) 1991 Census    (b) 1981 Census
 (c) 1971 Census    (d) 1961 Census
Q. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
 1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
 2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
 (a) Neither 1 nor 2    (b) Both 1 and 2
 (c) 1 alone     (d) 2 alone
Q. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the given below the lists:
 List I (Functionaries)   List II (Oaths or affirmations)
 A. President of India    1. Secrecy of Information
 B. Judges of Supreme Court   2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
 C. Members of Parliament   3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution
       of India
 D. Minister for the Union   4. Upholding the Constitution & the law
  A  B  C  D
 (a) 3  4  1  2
 (b) 4  3  2  1
 (c) 3  4  2  1
 (d) 4  3  1  2 ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
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Q. In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament
filled on the basis of first-past-the post system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional
Representation system of elections?
 (a) Germany     (b) Italy
 (c) France     (d) Russia
Q. In the following quotation:
 “WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens
 JUSTICE, social, economic and political ; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief
 faith and worship ; EQUALIY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all ;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the  individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation
 In our Constituent Assembly that ‘X’ to hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution”.
 ‘X’ stands for
 (a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950 (b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
 (c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949 (d) None of the above
Q. Assertion (A):  Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory
language about judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without warming the judiciary with
   punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
Q. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
 (a) the constitution of state level election commission
 (b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
 (c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
 (d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections.
Q. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panch-sheel”?
 (b) Non-alignment
 (b) Peaceful Co-existence
 (c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
 (d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
1996
Q. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats
reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that states will be
 (a) 21      (b) 14
 (c) 7      (d) 6
Q. The power of the Supreme Court in India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its:
 (a) advisory jurisdiction   (b) appellate jurisdiction
 (c) original jurisdiction   (d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
 (a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
 (b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
 (c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
 (d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
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Q. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
 (a) chief presidency magistrate  (b) sessions judge
 (c) tribunal judge    (d) chief justice of a small cause court
Q. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of
India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
 (a) Lok Sabha     (b) Rajya Sabha
 (c) State Legislative Councils   (d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
 (a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level
 (b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
 (c) Three tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
 (d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and state levels
Q. Consider the following statements:
 No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
 1. it will be violate of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
 2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience  and practise and propagation of
religion
 3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem
 (a) 1 and 2 are correct    (b) 2 and 3 are correct
 (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct   (d) none is correct
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
 (a) is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of
Parliament
 (b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
 (c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
 (d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary
powers vested with the President of India
Q. Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
Q. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system?
 (a) Sri Lanka     (b) Bangladesh
 (c) Pakistan     (d) Myanmar
1995
Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process
in India?
 (a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is
issued by the Election Commission.
 (b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
 (c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for
election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
 (d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification
in respect of it are done by Election Commission ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
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Q. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra legal device(s) for securing
cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
 1. The National Development Council 2. The Governor’s Conference
 3. Zonal Councils    4. The Inter-State Council
 (a) 1 and 2     (b) 1, 3 and 4
 (c) 3 and 4     (d) 4 only
Q. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha?
 (a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
 (b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
 (c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
 (d) Elected members of the Lower House of the state legislature
Q. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even
though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
 (a) Maharashtra    (b) Bihar
 (c) Karnataka     (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru    (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
 (c) C. Rajagopalachari   (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office of a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be
deduced from this ?
 1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of his term
 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years
 (a) 1 only     (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither
Q. Prohibition of discrimination on groups of religion etc (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
 (a) the Right to Freedom of Religion  (b) the Right against Exploitation
 (c) the Cultural and Educational Rights (d) the Right to Equality
Q. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as
a convention?
 (a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
 (b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
 (c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
 (d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the
President
Q. Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief
Minister in its ambit?
 (a) West Bengal and Kerala   (b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
 (c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa  (d) Rajasthan and Karnataka ©VISION IAS                                                        www.visioniasonline.com  
 
26
Q. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal
system
 (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
 (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
 (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Q. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that
 (a) the polling was very poor
 (b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
 (c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
 (d) a very large number of candidates contested the election